"If a married person commits unlawful sexual intercourse, he is stoned until he dies"
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The Shaykh : The purpose of carrying out the fixed punishment is to discipline the perpetrator, not to kill him. "If a married person commits unlawful sexual intercourse, he is stoned until he dies". It is known that "commits unlawful sexual intercourse" is the condition, and "is stoned" is the response to the condition. Stoned with what? Stoned with stones. The stones must be neither so large that they kill him instantly, nor so small that he merely feels pain and discomfort from them; rather, they should be about the size of an egg or smaller. We have learned that the head, face, private parts, and vital areas are to be protected, and he is struck with them until he dies. What is the evidence for this killing, which some people may find abhorrent? The evidence is from the Book of Allah, the Sunnah of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him), and the practice of the Rightly Guided Caliphs and the rightly guided imams.
As for the Book of Allah the Exalted, it is what is established in the two Sahihs in the hadith of 'Umar ibn al-Khattab, who said: "The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) stoned, and we stoned after him. There was in what Allah revealed to His Prophet a verse of stoning, which we recited and memorized. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) stoned, and we stoned after him. I fear that if time passes for people, they will say, 'We do not find stoning in the Book of Allah,' and thus they will go astray by abandoning an obligation that Allah the Exalted revealed". The beginning of the hadith means: "Allah revealed the Qur'an to His Prophet, and among what He revealed to him was a verse of stoning". This is the testimony of 'Umar on the pulpit of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) in the presence of the Companions, and no one denied it, regarding the fact that a verse of stoning was revealed in the Qur'an, recited, memorized, and acted upon during the time of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and the time of his Rightly Guided Caliphs. What is the wording of this verse? The wording of this verse must necessarily correspond to the established ruling now. He said: "And indeed, stoning is a truth established in the Book of Allah for one who commits unlawful sexual intercourse if he is married, when the evidence is established, or there is pregnancy, or confession". Therefore, the wording of the verse must exactly match the established ruling now. As for those who say that the wording of the verse is: "The old man and the old woman who commit unlawful sexual intercourse, stone them both, a punishment from Allah, and Allah is Mighty and Wise," this is not correct. First, one who reads it does not find in it the touch of the Noble Qur'an and the speech of the Lord of the Worlds. Second, the ruling in it contradicts the established ruling now. How so? The ruling in this wording is contingent on old age, whether this old man is married or a virgin, whereas the established ruling is the opposite, contingent on being married, whether he is old or young. Therefore, this wording that is mentioned as being abrogated is not correct. The abrogated wording must necessarily match the established ruling that is currently in effect. We are not concerned with knowing its exact wording, as long as 'Umar ibn al-Khattab testified to it on the pulpit of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) and the Companions heard it and did not deny it, for then we know that this text existed and was then abrogated. If someone asks, "What is the wisdom in abrogating its wording but not its meaning?" The answer, and Allah knows best, is that the wisdom, and Allah knows best, is that if this Ummah acts upon stoning even though there is no apparent text in the Qur'an, that would be a proof of its nobility and excellence, unlike the Jews, for whom stoning existed in their Book as a text, yet they abandoned acting upon it.
As for the Book of Allah the Exalted, it is what is established in the two Sahihs in the hadith of 'Umar ibn al-Khattab, who said: "The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) stoned, and we stoned after him. There was in what Allah revealed to His Prophet a verse of stoning, which we recited and memorized. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) stoned, and we stoned after him. I fear that if time passes for people, they will say, 'We do not find stoning in the Book of Allah,' and thus they will go astray by abandoning an obligation that Allah the Exalted revealed". The beginning of the hadith means: "Allah revealed the Qur'an to His Prophet, and among what He revealed to him was a verse of stoning". This is the testimony of 'Umar on the pulpit of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) in the presence of the Companions, and no one denied it, regarding the fact that a verse of stoning was revealed in the Qur'an, recited, memorized, and acted upon during the time of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) and the time of his Rightly Guided Caliphs. What is the wording of this verse? The wording of this verse must necessarily correspond to the established ruling now. He said: "And indeed, stoning is a truth established in the Book of Allah for one who commits unlawful sexual intercourse if he is married, when the evidence is established, or there is pregnancy, or confession". Therefore, the wording of the verse must exactly match the established ruling now. As for those who say that the wording of the verse is: "The old man and the old woman who commit unlawful sexual intercourse, stone them both, a punishment from Allah, and Allah is Mighty and Wise," this is not correct. First, one who reads it does not find in it the touch of the Noble Qur'an and the speech of the Lord of the Worlds. Second, the ruling in it contradicts the established ruling now. How so? The ruling in this wording is contingent on old age, whether this old man is married or a virgin, whereas the established ruling is the opposite, contingent on being married, whether he is old or young. Therefore, this wording that is mentioned as being abrogated is not correct. The abrogated wording must necessarily match the established ruling that is currently in effect. We are not concerned with knowing its exact wording, as long as 'Umar ibn al-Khattab testified to it on the pulpit of the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) and the Companions heard it and did not deny it, for then we know that this text existed and was then abrogated. If someone asks, "What is the wisdom in abrogating its wording but not its meaning?" The answer, and Allah knows best, is that the wisdom, and Allah knows best, is that if this Ummah acts upon stoning even though there is no apparent text in the Qur'an, that would be a proof of its nobility and excellence, unlike the Jews, for whom stoning existed in their Book as a text, yet they abandoned acting upon it.