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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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(Aflah and his father, if he is truthful) Is the intended meaning not "Aflah succeeded and his father succeeded"?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Ah, this was a mistake we made twice, because "Aflah and his father succeeded" is something that would make Sibawayhi angry and swell up, ah, "Aflah and his father succeeded."

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : My brother, "Aflah" is a past tense verb, and you must say "Aflah succeeded and his father succeeded," did you understand or not? That is one point. The second point is that it is not the case that if a man succeeds, his father succeeds. Does the success of a man necessitate the success of his father? It does not make sense, neither in meaning nor in wording.

The questioner : Shaykh?

The Shaykh : Yes, what?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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