Is the linguistic rule of obligating the alif in the dual present in the Qur'an?
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The Shaykh : Yes.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, no, it is not in the Qur'an, because it is not the language of Quraysh. It is the language of some Arabs, but it is good and fine for a student of knowledge. If a beginner student makes a mistake and someone corrects him, he says: "I follow the language that always obligates the alif." So, in the dual, there is a language that always obligates the alif. Therefore, leave it with the alif and do not make a mistake.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes, of course, and for this reason, this verse:
"Indeed, his father and his father's father *** have reached the peak of their glory"
If he had followed the well-known language, he would have said: "ghaytaha" (the peak of their glory), but he always obligated the alif.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : No, no, it is not in the Qur'an, because it is not the language of Quraysh. It is the language of some Arabs, but it is good and fine for a student of knowledge. If a beginner student makes a mistake and someone corrects him, he says: "I follow the language that always obligates the alif." So, in the dual, there is a language that always obligates the alif. Therefore, leave it with the alif and do not make a mistake.
The questioner : ... .
The Shaykh : Yes, of course, and for this reason, this verse:
"Indeed, his father and his father's father *** have reached the peak of their glory"
If he had followed the well-known language, he would have said: "ghaytaha" (the peak of their glory), but he always obligated the alif.