Explanation of the author's (may Allah have mercy on him) statement: " . . .

The Shaykh : All right, the jwazim. The jwazim is the plural of jazim. The jwazim is the plural of jazim, and the plural of jazim is masculine, being jwazim because it refers to non-rational things.
He says "The jwazim are eighteen", meaning eighteen jazims. The evidence for this is what we have established regarding the nasib (particles that cause the accusative mood) through tracking and induction. "And they are lam, lamma, alim, alima, the lam of command and supplication, and 'la' in prohibition and supplication". All right, these letters cause the jussive mood of a single verb. They cause the jussive mood of a single verb. We return them: lam, lamma, alim, alima, the lam of command and supplication, and 'la' in prohibition and supplication. How many?
The student: Eight.

The Shaykh : Eight. These cause the jussive mood of a single verb. They cause the jussive mood of a single verb. And what remains of the eighteen here...
The student: Ten.

The Shaykh : Ten cause the accusative mood.
The student: They cause the jussive mood.

The Shaykh : Or they cause the jussive mood of two verbs. They cause the jussive mood of two verbs. All right, we start with "lam". Lam is introduced to a present-tense verb, and it becomes clear to you. You say: "The man strikes his son if he behaves rudely". The man strikes his son if he behaves rudely. I introduce lam to "strikes" and say: "Lam strikes." "Lam strikes." "Lam strikes the man his son." "Lam strikes the man his son" when he behaved rudely. All right.
Who changed "strikes" (with dammah) to "strikes" (with sukun)? "Lam". Lam caused the verb to be in the jussive mood. "Lam strikes." This is its function. All right. We used to say: "The man strikes his son when he behaves rudely." Now we say: "Lam strikes." What happened in the sentence? Negation. Negation instead of affirmation... All right. "The man strikes his son when he behaves rudely." When is the striking?
The student: Here.

The Shaykh : Now, in the present time. "Lam strikes the man his son when he behaved rudely." When?
The student: the past

The Shaykh : Meaning, "Lam strikes" refers to the past. So, lam conveys three benefits: negation, jussive mood, and inversion. If you wish, you can say: negation, inversion, and jussive mood.
Negation, because it changed the affirmative sentence into a negative sentence. Inversion, because it changed the present-tense verb from the present to the past. Jussive mood, because it put the present-tense verb in the jussive mood. So we say: "Lam strikes." Lam is a particle of negation, inversion, and jussive mood. "Strikes" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to lam, and the sign of its jussive mood is sukun. A man spoke and said: "Lam strikes" (with dammah). "Lam strikes" (with dammah). Here...
The student: Error

The Shaykh : Incorrect. The second one said: "Lam struck" (with dammah).
The student: Correct.

The Shaykh : He emphasized the dammah.
The student: Correct.

The Shaykh : Correct.
The student: Correct.

The Shaykh : Why?
The student: Because it is the waw of the group.

The Shaykh : Because it is now in the jussive mood. It was put in the jussive mood by what?
The student: By the deletion of the noon.

The Shaykh : By deleting the noon, because it is one of the five verbs. All right. This is lam. What about alim?
The student: Lamma.

The Shaykh : Yes, correct. "Lamma". Lamma. For example, you say: "Zayd is happy". Zayd is happy. Then you come with lamma and say: "Lamma Zayd is happy". Lamma Zayd is happy. All right. Did you change the verb or not?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : From what? From the nominative to the jussive mood. All right.
"Zayd is happy" is an affirmative sentence.
"Lamma Zayd is happy." Here, is the sentence negative or not? All right.
"Zayd is happy" is a sentence suitable for the present.
"Lamma Zayd is happy" is for the past. For the past.
So, lamma is a particle of negation, what? And inversion and jussive mood. A particle of negation, inversion, and jussive mood. But the difference between it and lam is that lam is negation without expectation, while lamma is negation with expectation. This is the difference. Lam is negation without expectation, and lamma is negation with expectation. So, the saying of Allah, Blessed and Exalted is He: . In it there is negation, but with expectation. Expectation of what? Expectation of the negated thing. Meaning, they have not tasted it, but soon they will taste it. Soon they will taste it. Unlike lam, which does not indicate this meaning. I think it is clear. All right.
"Alim and alima". In truth, the author, may Allah reward him with good and forgive him, meaning he simplified it for the student. Once, he made alim an independent tool. In truth, it is not an independent tool. It is lam, but the hamza entered it. But to facilitate things for the beginning student, he made it a tool. So, according to the author's statement, we bring an example.
Allah the Exalted said: . If we want to parse it, we say: Alim is a particle of negation, jussive mood, and inversion. Alim, according to the author's statement. Why? Because he made alim the tool. And on this basis, we do not address the hamza. We do not address the hamza, because the author, may Allah be merciful to him, wanted to be lenient with the beginner. Instead of saying: "The hamza is for interrogation," and what is meant by interrogation? Yes. And did it deviate from the original or not? Yes. And we confuse the student. He said: Leave the discussion of the hamza. Make it part of what? Part of the tool. Say: Alim, all of it. All right. Its example...



And there are many examples. All right.
"And alima". Alima is lamma, but the hamza entered it. The author says: Make it one tool. So you say: "Alima Zayd stands". Alima Zayd stands. "Alima Zayd strikes". We say: Alima is a particle of negation, inversion, and jussive mood. And "strikes" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to alima, and the sign of its jussive mood is sukun. All right.
He said: "And the lam of command". And the lam of command means the lam indicating command, like His saying, the Exalted: . The lam here is the lam of command. "Spends" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to the lam of command. And "who has" is the doer. "Spends" is in the nominative with a hidden dammah on the waw, prevented from appearing due to heaviness. "Who has" is a possessive, and "abundance" is the possessed.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : I parsed it. I was... It turned out it is not correct.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : "Who has" is the doer, in the nominative with a hidden dammah on the waw, prevented from appearing due to heaviness.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Incorrect. Why?
The student: It is in the nominative with the waw.

The Shaykh : It is in the nominative with the waw, because it is one of the five names. Correct. And "who has" is a possessive, and "abundance" is the possessed. The point of this example is His saying: . And on this basis, we say in its parsing: The lam is the lam of command. The lam is the lam of command. "Spends" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to the lam of command, and the sign of its jussive mood is sukun. All right.
He said: "And supplication". The lam of supplication. The lam of supplication is the lam where the address is directed to Allah, like: "My Lord, forgive me. My Lord, forgive me". The lam here, if the one addressed were other than Allah, the lam would be the lam of command. But since the address is directed to Allah, it is not possible for us to command Allah. Allah commands and is not commanded. So we say: The lam is for what? In supplication, it is a supplication of entreaty. He is supplicating. All right.
And of that is His saying, the Exalted: . So we say: The lam is a preposition, and "decides" is a present-tense verb in the genitive due to the lam, and the sign of its genitive is the visible kasrah at its end. Correct, everyone. It is kasrah. "That he decides" is kasrah.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Here, yes. So we correct the parsing. We say: The lam is the lam of supplication. . The lam is the lam of supplication, and "decides" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to the lam of supplication, and the sign of its jussive mood is the deletion of the ya, and the kasrah before it is evidence for it, because the original of "decides" is "decides" (with ya), as He said, the Exalted: . All right.
So, the lam is the lam of supplication, and "decides" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to the lam of supplication, and the sign of its jussive mood is the deletion of the ya, and the kasrah before it is evidence for it. All right. And the lam of command and supplication.
"And 'la' in prohibition and supplication". The prohibitive 'la' and the supplicative 'la'. All right. Why did the author, may Allah have mercy on him, distinguish between the two expressions? He said: "'La' in prohibition and supplication". And there he said: Lam. "The lam of command". Here...
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Yes, correct. Because they say: If the word is on one letter, yes, then you pronounce it by its name. If the letter, the word, the letter means on one letter, you pronounce it by its name. And if it is composed of two letters or more, then pronounce it by its form. Therefore, we say: "Min" is a preposition, and we do not say: "The mim and the nun are a preposition." Why?
The student: It is two letters.

The Shaykh : It is two letters. And we say: "Lam" is a preposition, and "ila" is a preposition. Why? Because "lam" is one letter, we say: "Lam." And "ila" is how many letters? Three letters. We say: "Ila" is a preposition. Unlike if it were a verb. If it is a verb, it is pronounced by its form, even if it is on one letter. The verb is pronounced by its form, even if it is on one letter, like...
"Q". "My Lord, save me from Your punishment".
What do you say? "Qaf" is a verb of supplication. You say: "Q" is a verb of supplication. And you say...
"R Zayd. R Zayd".
And what does "R Zayd" mean? It means: Look at him. All right. You say: "R" is a verb of command, or is "R" a verb of command? You say: "R" is a verb of command.
So, if the word is on one letter, if it is a verb, it is pronounced by its form. And if it is a letter, it is pronounced by its name. This is the rule. All right.
He says: "La in supplication." "La in prohibition". La in prohibition. . "And do not transgress." We say: "La" is prohibitive. "Transgress" is a present-tense verb in the jussive mood due to the prohibitive "la," and the sign of its jussive mood is sukun. All right. You also say: "Do not strike your disciplined son." "Do not strike your disciplined son." "Do not strike." Correct.
The student: Correct.

The Shaykh : "Do not strike." Be careful, everyone. "Do not strike."
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Correct, correct. Because "la" is prohibitive, so it puts the present-tense verb in the jussive mood. "Do not strike your son." So if someone said: "Do not strike" (with dammah) your son. Here...
The student: Error

The Shaykh : Incorrect. And if he said: "Do not strike" (with kasrah) your son.
The student: Error

The Shaykh : Incorrect. Because "la" is prohibitive, and if the prohibitive "la" enters a verb, the jussive mood is obligatory. "Do not strike your son."
No, it is not a prohibitive "no" in supplication. However, if the address is directed to the Lord, Mighty and Majestic, you do not say it is a prohibitive "no," because you are not the one who forbids Allah; it is Allah who forbids you, and you do not forbid Allah. So what should I do? What should I call it? A "no" of supplication, or a "no" that is a letter of supplication, like His saying, the Exalted: