Explanation of Ibn Malik's (may Allah have mercy on him) statement: "The particle is like the letter, and the present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*."
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The Shaykh : Then he said: "The particle is like the two". The pronoun "the two" refers to the noun and the verb. "The particle" is that which does not accept the markers of a noun or the markers of a verb. So if we are asked, "What are the markers of a particle?" we say: Its marker is that it does not accept the markers of a noun or the markers of a verb. For this reason, al-Hariri said in *Al-Malḥah* (*The Point of Grammar*):
"The particle is that which has no marker *** So compare it to my saying, and you will be a marker"
Yes, "The particle is that which has no marker *** So compare it to my saying, and you will be a marker". So, the particle is that which has no marker, that which does not accept the markers of a verb or the markers of a noun. Is that clear, everyone? So, if I say: "The prayer has been established," what is "the"? It is a particle. "Established" is a verb because it accepted the quiescent feminine *tā*. "Prayer" is a noun because it contains the definite article *al*. Then he said: "A present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*". Here, the author begins to explain the specific markers for each type of verb.
The types of verbs are three: present tense, past tense, and imperative. The specific marker of the present tense verb is *lam*, so every word that accepts *lam* is a present tense verb. He said: "A present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*". There is a problem in the grammar of this line because he said: "A verb", starting with an indefinite noun. It is known that starting with an indefinite noun is not correct because the subject must be definite, as it is the one being judged, and an indefinite noun is not judged. The answer is that this indefinite noun is described, and when an indefinite noun is described, it becomes specific.
"A present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*". Here I ask: Why is it called "present tense" (*muḍāriʿ*)? They said: "Muḍāraʿah" means similarity, and the present tense verb resembles the active participle in its vowel movements. For example, "standing" (*qāʾim*) resembles in its vowel movements what? "He stands" (*yaqūmu*). Similarly, if I say "he seeks forgiveness" (*yastaghfir*), "he seeks forgiveness" resembles "one who seeks forgiveness" (*mustaghfir*). So they said: It resembles the noun, and for this reason they called it "present tense." And his saying: "follows *lam* and *kaysham*". What does "kaysham" mean? It is from *shamm* (smelling), which is the well-known sense in the nose. So if I say "So-and-so smells the basil," "smells" is a present tense verb. "Smells" became a present tense verb. "He stands" (*yaqūmu*) is a present tense verb. When *lam* enters it, it becomes "he did not stand" (*lam yaqum*). "He strikes" (*yadribu*) is a present tense verb; you say: "He did not strike" (*lam yadrib*). "He does" (*yafʿalu*) is a present tense verb; you say: "He did not do" (*lam yafʿal*). Allah the Exalted said:[Al-Baqarah 2:24]. Good.
"The particle is that which has no marker *** So compare it to my saying, and you will be a marker"
Yes, "The particle is that which has no marker *** So compare it to my saying, and you will be a marker". So, the particle is that which has no marker, that which does not accept the markers of a verb or the markers of a noun. Is that clear, everyone? So, if I say: "The prayer has been established," what is "the"? It is a particle. "Established" is a verb because it accepted the quiescent feminine *tā*. "Prayer" is a noun because it contains the definite article *al*. Then he said: "A present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*". Here, the author begins to explain the specific markers for each type of verb.
The types of verbs are three: present tense, past tense, and imperative. The specific marker of the present tense verb is *lam*, so every word that accepts *lam* is a present tense verb. He said: "A present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*". There is a problem in the grammar of this line because he said: "A verb", starting with an indefinite noun. It is known that starting with an indefinite noun is not correct because the subject must be definite, as it is the one being judged, and an indefinite noun is not judged. The answer is that this indefinite noun is described, and when an indefinite noun is described, it becomes specific.
"A present tense verb follows *lam* and *kaysham*". Here I ask: Why is it called "present tense" (*muḍāriʿ*)? They said: "Muḍāraʿah" means similarity, and the present tense verb resembles the active participle in its vowel movements. For example, "standing" (*qāʾim*) resembles in its vowel movements what? "He stands" (*yaqūmu*). Similarly, if I say "he seeks forgiveness" (*yastaghfir*), "he seeks forgiveness" resembles "one who seeks forgiveness" (*mustaghfir*). So they said: It resembles the noun, and for this reason they called it "present tense." And his saying: "follows *lam* and *kaysham*". What does "kaysham" mean? It is from *shamm* (smelling), which is the well-known sense in the nose. So if I say "So-and-so smells the basil," "smells" is a present tense verb. "Smells" became a present tense verb. "He stands" (*yaqūmu*) is a present tense verb. When *lam* enters it, it becomes "he did not stand" (*lam yaqum*). "He strikes" (*yadribu*) is a present tense verb; you say: "He did not strike" (*lam yadrib*). "He does" (*yafʿalu*) is a present tense verb; you say: "He did not do" (*lam yafʿal*). Allah the Exalted said: