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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Ibn Malik's statement "kaysham": Is not the kaf a preposition, and here it has entered upon a verb, whereas prepositions are restricted to nouns? How is that possible?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : You understood now. He says: "Yasham is a verb." "A present-tense verb following lam, kaysham" And he says that in the genitive case, the noun is identified, and here the kaf, which is a preposition, has entered upon "yasham," which is a verb. In the case of Ibn Malik, we say that this kind of construction is very common; it is found frequently in the speech of scholars. They said that there are two positions regarding its grammatical analysis:
The first position is that the sentence is the object of a deleted "qawla" (a word meaning "saying"), and the implied meaning is like saying "yasham."
The second position is that the verb here is intended to mean the word itself, like "kaysham," meaning like this word, so it is interpreted as such.
The student: ... .

The Shaykh : What?
The student: The grammatical analysis of "yasham."
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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