A question that is not entirely clear regarding the 'aqiqah if it is conditioned?

The questioner: That is, I gave you the price of the 'aqiqah, and there was a conversation and understanding between us that this is an 'aqiqah to be slaughtered and we would feed from it the workers, based on, as you know, Shaykh, after the contract... so it is the custom of people to feed the workers. So this brother of ours agreed, slaughtered it, cooked it, and fed it to the workers. He is asking about this, as if he sees that this arrangement is somehow problematic or something. Something is troubling him, so I said: By Allah, I have nothing to say about it. Let us present the situation to our Shaykh and see what he sees in it? He says, Shaykh, I looked into this carefully. He means it is not a condition, it is lighter than a condition. The matter is lighter; it is a consultation, asking what do you think about slaughtering it and then feeding the workers from it, meaning that...

The Shaykh: All right, confirming the lightness that is claimed, and upon that the answer is based. If the owner of the 'aqiqah, and not the one who donated its price, spent it on something other than what he stipulated, and he claimed it was a light condition, what is the position of the donor?

The questioner: And there is nothing, O Shaykh.

The Shaykh: If that is the case, and Allah is All-Knowing of what is in the breasts, then there is nothing wrong with it. But if it was a definite condition, and the one performing the 'aqiqah for his son was obligated by a definite obligation to act in this manner, then I do not think it would suffice for him.

The questioner: Yes. This is what I was afraid of. So I said to him: Did I stipulate this upon you or something like that? He said: No, the matter became an understanding, there is no definite condition, and this is what made me say it is light.

The Shaykh: I think the answer is clear?

The questioner: Yes, it is clear, Shaykh, may Allah honor you.