Is the presence of the Qur'an among Muslims today, along with the Sunnah and the callers to Islam, itself a proof?

The questioner : Some people say, O Shaykh, that the presence of the Qur'an among Muslims today, and the presence of the Sunnah and the callers to Islam, is itself a proof.

The Shaykh : This is a strange superficiality. In reality, this is one of the simplest matters, and it is surprising that some people say this. I have heard this from some of them for about twenty years. Is the Qur'an now being broadcast to Germany, France, and America? O people, Allah (Mighty and Majestic) said: So this is the Qur'an that has actually encompassed the entire earth in terms of transmission and hearing. But is it understood? Where do these non-Arab Muslims, let alone the disbelievers, get the idea that they understand the Noble Qur'an, when we have not even made the Arab Muslims understand it? We have not made them understand the meanings of the Noble Qur'an, let alone the non-Arab Muslims, let alone the non-Arab disbelievers. Is the intended meaning of transmission merely the transmission of the words of the Qur'an? The intended meaning is the transmission of the meanings of the Qur'an. As I mentioned earlier, the Arabs have become distant from the language of the Qur'an; they do not understand the Qur'an, whereas the Arab in the time of the Messenger (peace be upon him)—and they are described in the text of the Qur'an as an unlettered nation—understood it because the Qur'an was revealed in their language. Therefore, we always give the example of how strange it is that great sheikhs and scholars from the scholars of al-Azhar do not understand, even today, the meaning of "La ilaha illa Allah," nor do they understand why the polytheists said, as He (the Exalted) said: They said: Why? Because they understood the meaning of this beautiful word and that it means the destruction of the gods they used to worship besides Allah, to whom they dedicated vows and slaughtered sacrifices, and so on. Even today, many scholars do not understand this word as Abu Jahl understood it. The difference between the two groups is: Abu Jahl understood its meaning and disbelieved in it, while these sheikhs did not understand its meaning but believed in it, so they said "La ilaha illa Allah," but without understanding. This is a belief that benefits them in no way whatsoever. Therefore, the intended meaning of transmitting the Qur'an is not the words to non-Arabs who do not comprehend the meanings of the Qur'an; rather, the intended meaning is the meaning. Has the meaning of the Qur'an been conveyed to these nations? The answer is: No. Therefore, the proof has not been established. Based on this, I am certain today that the disbelievers in America and in Europe, as peoples and nations,
The student: Peace be upon you.

The Shaykh : And upon you be peace, and the mercy of Allah and His blessings. The call of the Qur'an has not reached them, and it reaches them as I mentioned, in its natural state and essence. I once said to this person I referred to earlier, who said, "The Qur'an reaches Europe, Germany, America, and so on," I said to him, "This means the Qur'an has reached them." I said to him, "Do you know that if we do not say that the most active group claiming affiliation to Islam in calling to Islam—even with their wrong or disbelieving concept—are the Qadiyyan, you must know a lot about them. These people have activity in Germany, they have activity in England. We saw their mosque when it was decreed for me to go to London. We entered the mosque and found the imam there, and we wanted to discuss with him, but he had no Islamic knowledge except that he was formally the imam of that mosque. The point is, I said to the person I was referring to in my speech: Do you think that these Europeans, for example the British and the Germans, whom the Qadiyyan contacted and conveyed to them the call of Islam with their specific concept, including that He (the Exalted) said: They said, "The Seal of the Prophets" does not mean that there is no prophet after the Messenger (peace be upon him), but rather it means the Seal of the Prophets, i.e., the adornment of the prophets, i.e., the best of them. When the Qadiyyan taught these non-Arabs, the British and the Germans, these distorted meanings, did they convey Islam to those people? They did not convey Islam to them. If that is the case, has the proof been established against these peoples? The proof has not been established because Islam was not conveyed to them as it was revealed to the heart of Muhammad (peace be upon him). When the Christians hear from their preachers about our Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) those many known accusations over the course of time, that this man, in the Syrian expression, is a "womanizer," meaning he loves women, and that he married so-and-so women, and so on, they portray the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) contrary to his noble character. The Messenger (peace be upon him) said in the authentic hadith narrated by Muslim in his "Sahih" from the hadith of Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him): The Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him) said: Do you think that when the Christians heard from their priests and monks the description of the Prophet with those lies and falsehoods, did they hear of the Prophet? They did not hear of the Prophet. Therefore, the call did not reach them. Therefore, it is required that in transmitting the call, as mentioned in your question, it be in its purity and clarity as Allah revealed it to the heart of Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him), and that it be accompanied by proof from the Book and the Sunnah.