Examples illustrating how understanding differs between those who rely solely on the Arabic language in understanding the verses and those who rely on the Prophetic Sunnah.

The Shaykh : Now, it is appropriate to bring up some verses to show how their understanding differs between one who relies solely on the Arabic language in understanding them and one who relies on the Prophetic Sunnah.
For example, our Lord, Mighty and Majestic, when He mentioned the prohibitions in marriage and mentioned , an Arab cannot understand from this verse "your mothers who have nursed you" to mean absolute breastfeeding, even if it means one or two sucks.
This is what al-Ghazali, or al-Ghazali and others who have no knowledge of the Sunnah, did. That is, the verse is absolute. And when I say this, I clearly remember that this is preceded by the opinion adopted by him and some contemporaries, namely that the breastfeeding that is forbidden is absolute, what is linguistically called breastfeeding, even if it is a drop, because it is said "he breastfed" . This is the school of Abu Hanifah. Therefore, when a person is unable to study the verse according to the previous rule, that is, in light of the Sunnah and the Prophetic hadiths, he relies on the apparent meaning of the verse, and then he finds support for it in the fact that some scholars have adopted this opinion. So this is the correct one, because is there anything worse than the language of the Qur'an? Emotion intervenes in it, but most people, as the Lord of the Worlds said, do not know. Undoubtedly, the Qur'an, as He said,
But the question is: is this Qur'an interpreted by the opinions of men, or is it interpreted by the interpretation of the Messenger, peace be upon him, and his explanation? No one can deny this interpretation, because it is stated in the Qur'an, as we mentioned earlier more than once,
So, in such a verse and others, it is not permissible for a true scholar to rush to interpret it based solely on his understanding. He must... [ask] whether the Messenger, peace be upon him, explained it or not. If there is no explanation, then he should stop at the Arabic language and its literature in his understanding of the Qur'an.
But the reality in this verse is the opposite. It was reported in Sahih Muslim that he, peace and blessings be upon him, said: So, the verse cannot be taken in its absolute sense. No, because the one to whom the Qur'an was revealed said: This first invalidates the interpretation mentioned earlier, which relied solely on the person's understanding in terms of Arabic style.

The questioner : What is "imlajah"?

The Shaykh : Yes

The questioner : "Imlajah"

The Shaykh : "Imlajah" is the squeezing of the breast for breastfeeding. "Imlajah" is squeezing the breast into a cup, a glass, a spoon, or something similar.
So, this hadith invalidates the previous interpretation, but the human soul still longs to know what the forbidden breastfeedings are. One or two breastfeedings are not forbidden. There is a hadith in Sahih Muslim from the narration of Aisha, may Allah be pleased with her, who said: .
The man, among his grave errors, relied purely linguistically on his understanding of the verse. He thought the verse was absolute, so he denied the authenticity of this hadith, even though it is in Sahih Muslim and all the scholars of hadith accepted it. Therefore, the stronger school of thought is that the five breastfeedings are the forbidden ones, not four, let alone three, let alone two.
So, this is an example from the Noble Qur'an where one errs if he relies on his understanding based on the Arabic language. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, to whom the Qur'an was revealed, clarified that this absolute sense understood from His saying is not intended, but rather the intended meaning is five forbidden breastfeedings.