A man wiped over a sock, then removed it and put on another sock while in a state of ritual purity; is he permitted to wipe over it?
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The questioner : He says:The questioner : If a man puts on ... then removes it and puts on another sock ... when does the time for wiping end?
The Shaykh : Yes. If a man puts on a sock over which he wipes, then removes it and puts on another, we look at the situation: if he removed the first one after having wiped over it, then he does not wipe over the second one. But if he removed the first one before wiping over it, meaning he was still in his state of ritual purity, and then he changed the sock, the time period begins from the first wipe after the state of ritual impurity. However, regarding the issue you raised: if a person puts on a sock and wipes over it, then realizes he needs another sock and puts on the second sock while in the state of ritual purity from the first wipe, there is no blame on him for that. The time period begins from the first wipe, not from the second wipe.
The Shaykh : Yes. If a man puts on a sock over which he wipes, then removes it and puts on another, we look at the situation: if he removed the first one after having wiped over it, then he does not wipe over the second one. But if he removed the first one before wiping over it, meaning he was still in his state of ritual purity, and then he changed the sock, the time period begins from the first wipe after the state of ritual impurity. However, regarding the issue you raised: if a person puts on a sock and wipes over it, then realizes he needs another sock and puts on the second sock while in the state of ritual purity from the first wipe, there is no blame on him for that. The time period begins from the first wipe, not from the second wipe.