Answer to the statement: It is reported in the hadith of A'ishah: "That the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) used to kiss some of his wives"

The Shaykh : The first hadith is the hadith of A'ishah: "That the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) used to kiss some of his wives, then pray without performing ablution." This is a valid hadith, as are all the hadiths mentioned in these questions, so we will not repeat the discussion on their authenticity. This hadith is among the evidence of Imam Abu Hanifa (may Allah have mercy on him) and those who preceded him and followed him from the Salaf and the Khalaf that touching a woman in an ordinary manner, meaning without sexual desire being aroused, does not invalidate the ablution. This is because the hadith explicitly states that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) used to kiss his wife, then stand up to pray without performing ablution. It is not hidden from anyone that kissing is a touch accompanied by desire, because a man kissing a woman, as is well known, is obviously not like a man kissing his son or daughter or his father or the like. So =
-- And peace be upon you --
= a man kissing his wife is a kiss of desire, a man kissing his son or daughter is a kiss of mercy, and a child kissing his father and mother is a kiss of respect and affection and the like. So the kissing of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) of some of his wives—and it was A'ishah as in some other narrations—was the kissing of a husband for his wife; so it involved desire. And yet, after this kissing, he (peace and blessings be upon him) would stand up to pray without performing ablution. This is an explicit hadith. And as Imam al-Bayhaqi says: It came through ten routes. This hadith from A'ishah came through ten routes, some of which are strong, and some support others, as the scholars of hadith say.