Mentioning the two recitations of "and your feet" with the fathah and the kasrah, along with explaining the meaning of each.

The Shaykh : If we say , it becomes conjoined to , meaning "wash your feet."
In that case, there is no difficulty with the verse.
If we recite , which is another canonical recitation, what is it conjoined to? One person will stand up to answer, you please.
The student: To your heads.

The Shaykh : To your heads.
Meaning, "wipe your heads and your feet."
Is that right?
Meaning, "wipe your heads and your feet."
The student: It is conjoined to the head.
Fine, so the meaning is, because the conjoined term and the term it is conjoined to share the same governing verb.
The meaning is: "wipe your heads and your feet."
Is that right? So you wipe the foot.
The student: You wipe the foot.

The Shaykh : People, what does "conjoined to your heads" mean? That means determining the ruling based on the wording, not based on what you know.
You are now intending that the foot is without doubt.
But if you say "wipe your heads and your feet," the ruling is determined based on this recitation.
People, let us understand each other; this is a discussion, and this discussion is for everyone.
But he will be acting on behalf of all of you.
Yes.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : And "your feet" with the kasrah, meaning "wipe your feet."
Yes, that is correct, my friend.
The student: From the perspective of... "wipe your feet" because it is conjoined to the head.

The Shaykh : So, the two feet are wiped.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : My friend, this is the word of Allah (Mighty and Majestic), He is the One who said: .
The two feet are wiped, is that right?
And do you do it this way?
Fine. Rest.
Do you agree that "your feet" is conjoined to "your heads," and that the two feet are wiped?
Fine, people, no.
We must say: Yes.
This is the implication of the word of our Lord (Mighty and Majestic), that the foot is wiped .
I say: "Bring me Zayd and 'Amr," is 'Amr brought or not?
Fine, "Bring me a garment and a book," is the book brought or not?
Fine, "Wipe your head and your foot," is the foot wiped?
Let us derive the ruling based on the wording, but the practice with this implication remains problematic, because our practice is that we wash.
And we believe that if a person wipes his foot instead of washing it, his ablution is not valid.
So how does this reconcile with the implication of the noble verse?
We say in answer to that.