If a man has children, some of whom he spent money on for their studies, and others on whom he did not spend, but who worked for him in farming the land, then when death came to him...

The questioner : For example, a man has sons, some of whom are educated and some are not. The educated ones incur high expenses for their studies, while the uneducated one works in the land and in farming, and no money is spent on him. So before the man dies, he bequeaths, for example, something to the uneducated one because he did not spend on him and did not incur any expenses?

The Shaykh : For example, this is not permissible.

The questioner : It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : If we assume that he educated one son and deprived the other, that is injustice. But we observe through experience that the natures of children are not all the same; one wants to learn, and one does not want to learn knowledge, but rather wants to learn a trade or craft. It may be that this one, in learning a craft, is better from this angle than the one who did not learn a trade but learned a theoretical science. If the matter is like this, then such a bequest is not permissible. But if he deprived him of knowledge while giving it to the others, that is injustice and a crime that must not occur.