Is it permissible to cite two hadiths regarding the distinction between snakes that come out in houses and snakes that come out in the wilderness?

Al-Halabi : Can it be said that there is a distinction between house snakes, for which that hadith is cited, and snakes outside houses, for which this hadith is cited?

The Shaykh : That is the first distinction, but there is a second distinction: if there is a snake outside the house, like on this ground for example, and we fear it, then it should be killed. But if we do not fear it, and it is walking in its path, then it has spared us its harm, just as we have spared it our harm.

The questioner : The hadith you mentioned, which Imam Muslim mentioned, "You have been spared its harm, and it has spared you its harm," is appropriate for this hadith.

The Shaykh : No. There is no connection between this and that.

Another questioner : Our Shaykh, there is an indication in this hadith that it is permissible for them to be from the jinn.

The Shaykh : This itself?

Another questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : No. The indication is in the hadith you mentioned.

Another questioner : The jinn consider humans to be superior to them in creation and lineage, and therefore they obey them.

The Shaykh : By Allah, this is a matter that has entered the stage of Shari'ah. Do you have evidence for this?

Another questioner : By Allah, my Shaykh, this is the statement of Ibn Taymiyyah.

The Shaykh : The statement of Ibn Taymiyyah is evidence, you mean?

Another questioner : No, it is not evidence.

The Shaykh : I am asking about the evidence.

Another questioner : I do not have evidence.

The Shaykh : We are truly difficult.

Another questioner : My Shaykh, a verse... is it not evidence for this?

The Shaykh : Complete the verse so we can see if there is evidence in it or not.

Another questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : If there are many, this restricts the claim.

Another questioner Is it suitable as evidence?

The Shaykh : This is like greeting your neighbor. Think, think, recall if you have any evidence for this?

Another questioner : The sending of the prophets

The Shaykh : How?

The questioner : The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) was sent to all creation, and likewise the jinn before that say that they heard a Qur'an revealed after Moses, so the indication is that the missions are for the children of Adam and that they are for the jinn as well. Is this not a proof of superiority?

Another questioner : My Shaykh, the verse is it not suitable?

The Shaykh : It is like greeting both of them.

Another questioner : My Shaykh, regarding... is there not a preference here... they eat the leftovers...

The Shaykh : AndThe Shaykh : He answered without a question, he does not know, he does not know, and therefore he asked for help.

Another questioner : My Shaykh, the verse reminded me of what my brother Ahmad mentioned, the statement of Iblis (may Allah curse him): Is this not also evidence?

The Shaykh : It is specific evidence between two individuals. We are talking about a nation over a nation, a people over a people, a creation over a creation. Just as if we said, for example, are the angels better or humans? It is possible that a person from among humans is better than the best of the angels, but that does not imply the preference of the genus of angels over the genus of humans, or vice versa.

Another questioner : My Shaykh, Allah made the caliphate in the children of Adam, and the jinn live on the earth with us, but the caliphate is in the children of Adam .

Another questioner : ... he is looking into it.

The Shaykh : How?

Another questioner : The preference of the genus or the type.

The Shaykh : I did not understand.

Another questioner : The meaning of the preference being investigated, what is its meaning, is the intended meaning the genus...

The Shaykh : The example we gave, the genus. Is the genus of angels better or the genus of humans, or the reverse? If we assume that the genus of angels is better, all of them as a group or as a nation, is it permissible for Muhammad to be better than the angels, or is it not permissible? It is permissible, but the investigation is not about individuals, the investigation is about the genus. So I am trying to see if there is something or not, I am not recalling.

Another questioner : My Shaykh, does merely investigating the comparison between humans and angels not implicitly imply the preference of humans over the jinn?

The Shaykh : How did you say?

Another questioner : Does merely investigating whether the scholars in the comparison between angels and humans not implicitly imply their preference over the jinn!

The Shaykh : Merely the investigation.

Another questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : How?

Another questioner : Merely mentioning that it is the jinn, are the angels or humans better? If the jinn were better than humans, it would be said, are the jinn or the angels better? So merely this comparison is a foregone conclusion that humans are higher in status than the jinn.

The Shaykh : But this requires evidence, whereas merely the claim, this has been said before.

Another questioner : The generalities, my Shaykh, that you mentioned?

Another questioner : As long as you are comparing the lower genus with the one above it, then consequently you drop what is below the lower one, and this is a matter of inference only, and a matter of reaching a conclusion.

The Shaykh: Yes.

Another questioner : I recited Surat al-Rahman to the jinn and I saw them to be better in response than you. Is this evidence of their preference over humans?

The Shaykh : The preference is situational. Yes.

Another questioner : My Shaykh, Professor Abu Abdullah, we discussed him once. He says that they are contemporaries, they have a problem with shirk. A man's house was burned, and he claims through his speech that the jinn burned it, so they brought scholars, meaning specialists in this field. What is your opinion, Abu Anas?