A questioner says: A woman vowed to perform 'Umrah while she was in her home in the south, three days before the month of Ramadan. Afterwards, she entered the state of ihram and proceeded with the 'Umrah, but she changed her intention to annul the vow and perform 'Umrah in Ramadan. This was before she reached the miqat by 130 kilometers. Then she arrived in Makkah and did not perform 'Umrah until Ramadan, and she entered ihram from al-Shara'i. Is this action valid, and does anything follow from her annulment of the intention?
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The questioner : The honorable Shaykh, a woman vowed to perform 'Umrah while she was in her home in the south, three days before the month of Ramadan. After she entered the state of ihram and intended the 'Umrah, she changed her intention to annul the vow and perform 'Umrah in Ramadan. This was before she reached the miqat by one hundred and thirty kilometers. Then she arrived in Makkah and did not perform 'Umrah until Ramadan, and she entered ihram from al-Shara'i. Is this action valid?
The Shaykh : Repeat.
The questioner : A woman vowed to perform 'Umrah while she was in her home in the south, three days before the month of Ramadan. After she entered the state of ihram and intended the 'Umrah, she changed her intention to annul the vow and perform 'Umrah in Ramadan. This was before she reached the miqat. Then she arrived in Makkah and did not perform 'Umrah until Ramadan, and she entered ihram from al-Shara'i. Is this action valid, and does anything follow from her annulment of the intention?
The Shaykh : This action is not valid, because when a person enters into 'Umrah or Hajj, it is forbidden for him to annul it except for a legitimate religious reason. Allah the Exalted said:[Al-Baqarah 2:196] meaning that you were prevented from completing the Hajj and 'Umrah [Al-Baqarah 2:196]. So this woman must repent to Allah (Mighty and Majestic) for what she did. Her 'Umrah is valid, because even though she annulled the 'Umrah, the 'Umrah is not annulled. This is one of the characteristics of Hajj and one of its wonders. Hajj has strange things that do not occur in other acts of worship. If you intend to invalidate the Hajj, it is not invalidated. But other acts of worship, if you intend to invalidate them, they are invalidated. If a person who is fasting intends to invalidate his fast, his fast is invalidated. If a person who is praying intends to invalidate his prayer, his prayer is invalidated. If a person who is performing wudu' intends to invalidate the wudu' during its performance, the wudu' is invalidated. If a person performing 'Umrah intends to invalidate it during the 'Umrah, it is not invalidated. If he intends to invalidate the Hajj while he is in the state of Hajj, the Hajj is not invalidated. For this reason, the scholars said: "The ritual is not invalidated by its rejection", meaning that if a person rejects it, it is not invalidated, but it remains. Based on this, we say that this woman remained in the state of ihram from the time she made the intention until she completed the 'Umrah. Her intention to annul it had no effect on it; rather, it remained upon her. And our question now is: I want to ask, did this woman catch the 'Umrah in Ramadan or not? No, she did not catch the 'Umrah in Ramadan, because her ihram was three days before Ramadan. For a person performing 'Umrah in Ramadan, his 'Umrah must be from the beginning of the ihram to its end within Ramadan.
Based on this, we also take another example: If a man reached the miqat in the last hour of Sha'ban and entered ihram for 'Umrah, then the sun set and Ramadan entered with the setting of the sun, and then he arrived in Makkah and performed tawaf and sa'y and shortened his hair, is it said that he performed 'Umrah in Ramadan? No, why? Because he began the 'Umrah before the entry of the month of Ramadan.
Now, a third example: A man entered ihram for 'Umrah before the setting of the sun on the last day of Ramadan and performed tawaf and sa'y for the 'Umrah on the night of the festival. Is it said that he performed 'Umrah in Ramadan?
The questioner : No.
The Shaykh : How is it that from one side you say what is valid, and from the other side you say it is valid? You said that if he entered ihram for 'Umrah before the entry of Ramadan and then completed it in Ramadan, he was not performing 'Umrah in Ramadan, because he caught a part of it, or because he took a part of the 'Umrah out of the month, meaning he performed a part of the 'Umrah before the entry of the month. Now, if he entered ihram for 'Umrah before the exit of Ramadan and completed it after its exit, he did not perform 'Umrah in Ramadan, because he took a part of the 'Umrah out of Ramadan. The 'Umrah, from the beginning of the ihram to its end, must be from the beginning of the ihram to its end within Ramadan. Now, the summary of the answer regarding the woman is that we say her 'Umrah is valid, but she did not catch the 'Umrah in Ramadan. And it is upon her not to return to rejecting the ihram a second time, because if she rejected the ihram, she would not be rid of it.
The questioner : ... the prohibitions, O Shaykh?
The Shaykh : No, no, she is in the state of ihram from her home, and her annulment of the 'Umrah has no effect. And in that case, her going out to al-Tan'im also has no effect. What remains is: if she wore sewn clothing, she is a woman who wears what she wishes. We do not know about the other prohibitions. But let us suppose that she committed the prohibitions, and let us suppose that her husband had intercourse with her. Intercourse during the ritual is the greatest of the prohibitions. In that case, she owes nothing. Why? Because she was ignorant. And anyone who commits a prohibition of ihram while ignorant, or forgetful, or forced, owes nothing. Yes, yes. Now, let's go.
The questioner : The honorable Shaykh, does the wudu' of a person who removes his leather socks after wiping over them become invalid? I ask for detail on this?
The Shaykh : Repeat.
The questioner : A woman vowed to perform 'Umrah while she was in her home in the south, three days before the month of Ramadan. After she entered the state of ihram and intended the 'Umrah, she changed her intention to annul the vow and perform 'Umrah in Ramadan. This was before she reached the miqat. Then she arrived in Makkah and did not perform 'Umrah until Ramadan, and she entered ihram from al-Shara'i. Is this action valid, and does anything follow from her annulment of the intention?
The Shaykh : This action is not valid, because when a person enters into 'Umrah or Hajj, it is forbidden for him to annul it except for a legitimate religious reason. Allah the Exalted said:
And complete the Hajj and 'umrah for Allah. But if you are prevented
وأتموا الحج والعمرة لله فإن أحصرتمwhat can be obtained with ease of sacrificial animals
فما استيسر من الهديBased on this, we also take another example: If a man reached the miqat in the last hour of Sha'ban and entered ihram for 'Umrah, then the sun set and Ramadan entered with the setting of the sun, and then he arrived in Makkah and performed tawaf and sa'y and shortened his hair, is it said that he performed 'Umrah in Ramadan? No, why? Because he began the 'Umrah before the entry of the month of Ramadan.
Now, a third example: A man entered ihram for 'Umrah before the setting of the sun on the last day of Ramadan and performed tawaf and sa'y for the 'Umrah on the night of the festival. Is it said that he performed 'Umrah in Ramadan?
The questioner : No.
The Shaykh : How is it that from one side you say what is valid, and from the other side you say it is valid? You said that if he entered ihram for 'Umrah before the entry of Ramadan and then completed it in Ramadan, he was not performing 'Umrah in Ramadan, because he caught a part of it, or because he took a part of the 'Umrah out of the month, meaning he performed a part of the 'Umrah before the entry of the month. Now, if he entered ihram for 'Umrah before the exit of Ramadan and completed it after its exit, he did not perform 'Umrah in Ramadan, because he took a part of the 'Umrah out of Ramadan. The 'Umrah, from the beginning of the ihram to its end, must be from the beginning of the ihram to its end within Ramadan. Now, the summary of the answer regarding the woman is that we say her 'Umrah is valid, but she did not catch the 'Umrah in Ramadan. And it is upon her not to return to rejecting the ihram a second time, because if she rejected the ihram, she would not be rid of it.
The questioner : ... the prohibitions, O Shaykh?
The Shaykh : No, no, she is in the state of ihram from her home, and her annulment of the 'Umrah has no effect. And in that case, her going out to al-Tan'im also has no effect. What remains is: if she wore sewn clothing, she is a woman who wears what she wishes. We do not know about the other prohibitions. But let us suppose that she committed the prohibitions, and let us suppose that her husband had intercourse with her. Intercourse during the ritual is the greatest of the prohibitions. In that case, she owes nothing. Why? Because she was ignorant. And anyone who commits a prohibition of ihram while ignorant, or forgetful, or forced, owes nothing. Yes, yes. Now, let's go.
The questioner : The honorable Shaykh, does the wudu' of a person who removes his leather socks after wiping over them become invalid? I ask for detail on this?