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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the evidence that permits a Muslim to boycott a person?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : ...There are many hadiths. We want the evidence, the hadiths that permit and allow a Muslim to boycott a person?

The Shaykh : Boycotting occurred among the Companions.

The questioner : By the text of the Qur'an.

The questioner : We hear it, we hear it.

The Shaykh : Among the Companions:
And [He also forgave] the three who were left behind وعلى الثلاثة الذين خلفوا ...
[At-Tawbah 9:118]
, where they boycotted them for fifty days.

The questioner : The evidence is the Qur'anic text.

The Shaykh : Yes, exactly.

The questioner : Does this evidence apply to Muslims in general, or is it because it is a proof from the sky? I mean, is there another proof that clarifies this for us, other than this proof, because this proof...

The Shaykh : No, my brother, you said Abu 'Abdullah in another proof.

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : This is not the scientific method that a student of knowledge should adhere to. Who is this? Who is this one who is speaking? I am with him...

The questioner : He wants to benefit.

The questioner : We want the matters to be clarified more with more than one proof, because in your case there are many proofs regarding the prohibition of boycotting, many clear proofs. As for that proof, if there were more, it would be clarified?

The Shaykh : Yes, without a doubt.

The questioner : There are many clear proofs regarding the prohibition of boycotting. As for that proof, if there were more, it would be clarified.

The Shaykh : And your saying that there is something other than the verse.

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : This is as he says, and this happens to us often, especially from behind the wall, from behind the phone, in matters other than hadith. So I say, "What did you not like about this hadith? Do you want another one? And must we give you two or three hadiths for every issue?" This is not the case. The important thing is: if the permissibility of boycotting is established in the Shari'ah in the Noble Qur'an, then one should not say at that time, "Is there not another proof for this?" Why?

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : Because this question makes the attendees feel that this proof is not sufficient.

The questioner : Yes, exactly.

The Shaykh : Therefore, we want another proof.

The questioner : Yes, exactly.

The Shaykh : This is a side note that has no relation to the topic, only to remind you of the excellence of asking questions.

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : And good questioning is half of knowledge, as it is said in the past. After this, I say: It has been established that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) boycotted his wives for a month. And I fear, what I fear most, is that a question will come from another party asking, "Is there not another hadith for this as well?"

The questioner : That is not my concern.

The Shaykh : Because this hadith has a relation to women and the man. No, we are going to look at it.

The questioner : The Prophet's (peace and blessings be upon him) measure with his wives is different from the measure of a Muslim man and woman.

The questioner : Yes, yes.

The Shaykh : No, this is what we feared... Listen to the answer now. The intended meaning of the first boycotting is that mentioned in the Qur'an, and the intended meaning of the second boycotting is that mentioned in the Prophetic hadiths. A question to sharpen the minds: Is it a purely devotional matter whose meaning is not rational, or is it a matter whose meaning is rational?

The questioner : No, it is a matter whose meaning is rational.

The Shaykh : A matter whose meaning is rational.

The questioner: Yes.

The Shaykh : So, if a text comes and its ruling is a matter whose meaning is rational, and it is not purely devotional, then we stop at this text and do not go beyond it, even if we find others. We are now facing two texts. Why did the Messenger (peace be upon him) order his noble Companions to boycott the three who lagged behind? Without a doubt, the answer is for discipline. Why did the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) boycott his wives? For discipline. At that time, we say: Why did Zayd boycott 'Umar? If it is on the same wavelength, the proof of the Qur'an and the authentic Sunnah is sufficient for him. But the difference is, without a doubt, very clear. It is not a boycotting that we take you far away with. It is not Al-Albani's boycotting of Zayd, Bakr, and 'Amr like the boycotting of those people, the Companions, who were directly ordered to boycott those three who lagged behind. And even more so, it is not like the boycotting of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) of his wives, because he is protected from error. But the important thing is that this boycotter, who is Al-Albani, is boycotting for discipline.

The questioner : For himself.

The Shaykh : Huh? He is boycotting for discipline whom? The one being boycotted. So here, if he hits the mark in that, he is rewarded, and his role model is the Book and the Sunnah. And if he errs, and there is room for someone to point out the aspect of the error, then we welcome that and we say: "O Abu Bilal, may Allah have mercy on the one who points out my faults to me."
Source www.al-albany.com

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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