What is the ruling on swearing by other than Allah without intention, and does anything follow from it?
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The questioner : The honorable Shaykh says: A person swore by other than Allah without intention and forgot to expiate for it. Does he owe anything?
The Shaykh : Yes, the oath of one who swears by other than Allah is not valid because it is a defective oath. And a defective oath entails nothing except sin. But if the person was forgetful, he owes nothing, due to the saying of Allah the Exalted:[Al-Baqarah 2:286]. He says he forgot to expiate, so I do not know what he means by expiation? Does he mean the expiation of a valid oath? Then he owes no expiation for the oath. Or does he mean the expiation to which the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) directed, which is that whoever says: Sunan Abi Dawud 3247Sahih (Al-Albani) until he establishes his tawhid (the oneness of Allah), because swearing by al-Lat is shirk (associating partners with Allah). So if he says "There is no god but Allah," that is pure tawhid. Yes.
The questioner : The honorable Shaykh says: Is shaving the beard permissible, knowing that the person who shaves his beard cites as evidence for this the imitation of the Jews, because the Jews today shave their beards? What do you say about that?
The Shaykh : What?
The Shaykh : Yes, the oath of one who swears by other than Allah is not valid because it is a defective oath. And a defective oath entails nothing except sin. But if the person was forgetful, he owes nothing, due to the saying of Allah the Exalted:
Our Lord, do not impose blame upon us if we have forgotten or erred.
ربنا لا تؤاخذنا إن نسينا أو أخطأنا"By al-Lat" he should say: There is no god but Allah
واللات فليقل لا إله إلا اللهThe questioner : The honorable Shaykh says: Is shaving the beard permissible, knowing that the person who shaves his beard cites as evidence for this the imitation of the Jews, because the Jews today shave their beards? What do you say about that?
The Shaykh : What?