I bought a car such that half the value is cash and the other half is after four years.
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The questioner : May Allah reward you. This person says: Noble Shaykh, I bought a car such that half the value is
The Shaykh : What?
The questioner : I bought a car
The Shaykh : Yes
The questioner : I bought a car such that half the value is cash and the other half is after four years. The sale was completed and the session ended, and after a period of time, about a few months, I wanted to sell the car. Is it permissible for me to sell the car to the person from whom I bought it the first time? And does this fall under the sale of 'inah? Please give us a ruling, may Allah reward you.
The Shaykh : He says "I bought." Is the correct word "I bought" (ash-taraitu) or "I sold" (sharaitu)?
The student: I sold (sharaitu)
The Shaykh : I sold, the second one
The student: I bought (ash-taraitu)
The Shaykh : Okay, so we combine the two disagreements or the two differing opinions that both "I sold" (sharaitu) and "I bought" (ash-taraitu) are permissible? Yes, and the correct usage is to say "I bought" (ash-taraitu), because if you say "I sold" (sharaitu), it means you sold. So you say "I sold the car to so-and-so," meaning I sold it to him. The evidence for this is the saying of Allah, Blessed and Exalted is He:[Al-Baqarah 2:207] And what does "he sells himself" mean? He sells himself, clear? And He said, Exalted is He: [At-Tawbah 9:111] So there is a difference between "buying" (ishtira') and "purchasing" (shira') just as there is a difference between "buying" (ibtaya') and "selling" (bay'). It is said "he sold the goods" and "he bought the goods"; is there a difference between them or not? There is a difference, just like the difference between "shara" (sold) and "ash-tara" (bought). The question now is: he bought the car for a price, part of which was cash and part deferred. After a period of time, he wanted to sell the car. Is it permissible for him to sell it to the one from whom he originally bought it?
The answer to this involves detail. If he sells it for its value, there is no harm with that — you have recorders that distort my speech — if he sells it to the one who bought it from him for its price, there is no harm with that. For example: he buys it on credit for fifty thousand, then the value of cars rises and it becomes worth fifty thousand in cash, so he sells it to the one who bought it from him for fifty thousand. Is this permissible or not permissible? This is permissible because there is no riba (usury or interest); he bought for fifty and sold for fifty. But if he sells it for less than what he bought it for, this is not permissible, and this is called the sale of 'inah. The sale of 'inah is forbidden (haram) due to the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): Yes.
The Shaykh : What?
The questioner : I bought a car
The Shaykh : Yes
The questioner : I bought a car such that half the value is cash and the other half is after four years. The sale was completed and the session ended, and after a period of time, about a few months, I wanted to sell the car. Is it permissible for me to sell the car to the person from whom I bought it the first time? And does this fall under the sale of 'inah? Please give us a ruling, may Allah reward you.
The Shaykh : He says "I bought." Is the correct word "I bought" (ash-taraitu) or "I sold" (sharaitu)?
The student: I sold (sharaitu)
The Shaykh : I sold, the second one
The student: I bought (ash-taraitu)
The Shaykh : Okay, so we combine the two disagreements or the two differing opinions that both "I sold" (sharaitu) and "I bought" (ash-taraitu) are permissible? Yes, and the correct usage is to say "I bought" (ash-taraitu), because if you say "I sold" (sharaitu), it means you sold. So you say "I sold the car to so-and-so," meaning I sold it to him. The evidence for this is the saying of Allah, Blessed and Exalted is He:
And of the people is he who sells himself, seeking means to the approval of Allah
ومن الناس من يشري نفسه ابتغاء مرضات اللهIndeed, Allah has purchased from the believers their lives
إن الله اشترى من المؤمنين أنفسهمThe answer to this involves detail. If he sells it for its value, there is no harm with that — you have recorders that distort my speech — if he sells it to the one who bought it from him for its price, there is no harm with that. For example: he buys it on credit for fifty thousand, then the value of cars rises and it becomes worth fifty thousand in cash, so he sells it to the one who bought it from him for fifty thousand. Is this permissible or not permissible? This is permissible because there is no riba (usury or interest); he bought for fifty and sold for fifty. But if he sells it for less than what he bought it for, this is not permissible, and this is called the sale of 'inah. The sale of 'inah is forbidden (haram) due to the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):