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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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What is the definition of the Qudsi Hadith?

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The questioner : He says:The questioner : You mentioned, O honorable Shaykh, in your book *Terminology of Hadith* that the Qudsi Hadith is one whose meaning is from Allah and whose wording is from the Messenger of Allah (peace and blessings be upon him). However, most scholars hold that both its wording and its meaning are from Allah. What is your opinion on this? May Allah reward you with good.

The Shaykh : I lean toward the opinion that its meaning is from Allah and its wording is from the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him). I base this on several points:
The first point is that the Sunnah, or the Islamic Shari'ah, cannot distinguish between two identical things. If we were to say that the Qudsi Hadith is the speech of Allah in both wording and meaning, like the Qur'an, it would have to follow the rulings of the Qur'an. It would have to follow the rulings of the Qur'an, meaning it would be a miracle, could not be touched without ritual purity, and could not be read by one in a state of major ritual impurity, along with all the other consequences that apply to the Qur'an. It is well known that the Qudsi Hadith does not carry the rulings of the Qur'an. Furthermore, if we said it is the speech of Allah in both wording and meaning, it might imply that the chain of narration for the Qudsi Hadith is higher than that of the Qur'an. Why? Because the Qur'an has an intermediary between Allah and the Messenger, namely Jibril
(192) And indeed, the Qur'an is the revelation of the Lord of the worlds. (193) The Trustworthy Spirit has brought it down (194) Upon your heart وإنه لتنزيل رب العالمين نزل به الروح الأمين على قلبك
[Ash-Shu'ara 26:192-194]
. But if the Messenger says, "Allah the Exalted said," this implies that there is no intermediary; there is no intermediary. Therefore, the chain of narration for the Qudsi Hadith would be higher than the chain of the Qur'an, which is impossible.
It remains to be asked: How do we answer the attribution of the speech to Allah in the Messenger's statement, "Allah the Exalted said"? We say: The answer to this is easy. One expresses the meaning of the statement and attributes it to the speaker. Allah the Exalted narrated what Musa, Harun, Pharaoh, and all the prophets said to their peoples, and what their peoples said to them. In what language? In Arabic. Were the languages of the previous prophets Arabic? No. And yet, Allah the Mighty and Majestic says:
And [remember] when Musa said to his people, "O my people, why do you harm me وإذ قال موسى لقومه يا قومي لم تؤذونني
Then Allah said:
And [remember] when Musa said to his people وإذ قال موسى لقومه
To whom is the speech attributed? To Musa. Did Musa say it in this exact wording,
O my people, why do you harm me يا قومي لم تؤذونني
? No. Because Musa's language was Hebrew.
And [mention] when Jesus, the son of Mary, said, "O children of Israel, indeed I am the messenger of Allah to you confirming what came before me of the Torah وإذ قال عيسى ابن مريم يا بني إسرائيل إني رسول الله إليكم مصدقا لما بين يدي من التوراة
[As-Saf 61:6]
Isa ibn Maryam said, "O my people, why do you harm me?" Did he say it in this exact wording? No. He said it in his own wording, in his own language, but Allah transmitted it from him and attributed it to him. This is indicated by the fact that Allah, Glorified and Exalted is He, mentions certain speech in some verses and mentions the same speech in other verses with different wording. This is why we see that the Qudsi Hadith has its meaning from Allah and its wording from the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him).
If someone were to say: I will take the apparent wording. I will say, "Allah said," without specifying whether it is the meaning or the wording. We say: There is no blame on you. Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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