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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Living in a disbeliever's state where some Muslims are oppressed and the oppression cannot be removed except by resorting to man-made laws: does this fall under resorting to the Taghut?

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The Shaykh : I live in a disbeliever's state, and there is oppression of some Muslims residing there. This oppression cannot be removed except by resorting to the man-made laws of this state. Do we fall under the verse that forbids resorting to the Taghut?
Resorting to the Taghut, may Allah reward you, if it is to enforce its ruling, then it is not permissible. But if it is to reach your right, meaning that if it rules in your favor with something that contradicts the Shari'ah, you reject it, then it is for dire necessity and there is nothing wrong with it. Ibn al-Qayyim (may Allah have mercy on him) mentioned in his book *Al-Turuq al-Hukmiyyah* good words regarding this topic. This is what he says.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Okay, this contradicts this. 'Imran, 'Imran, what is it? Al-Ma'rashi is present. Okay.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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