A man married a woman, then divorced her, and she married another man and gave birth to a daughter. Is it permissible for her first husband to marry this daughter?
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : Okay, he says: A man married a woman, then divorced her, and she married another man and gave birth to a daughter from him. Is it permissible for her first husband to marry this daughter from the second husband?
It is not permissible for him, because if a man marries a woman and has intercourse with her, all of her descendants are mahram (forbidden to marry) to him: her daughter, her granddaughter, or her son’s daughter.
We always repeat this to you: When a man contracts marriage with a woman, her mother becomes mahram to him, and her grandmothers become mahram to him. If he has intercourse with her, her daughters become mahram to him. Her father and her grandfathers become mahram to the wife, and her sons become mahram to her. Yes, that is correct.
It is not permissible for him, because if a man marries a woman and has intercourse with her, all of her descendants are mahram (forbidden to marry) to him: her daughter, her granddaughter, or her son’s daughter.
We always repeat this to you: When a man contracts marriage with a woman, her mother becomes mahram to him, and her grandmothers become mahram to him. If he has intercourse with her, her daughters become mahram to him. Her father and her grandfathers become mahram to the wife, and her sons become mahram to her. Yes, that is correct.