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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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The Prohibition of a Daughter from a Second Husband to the First Husband

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
A woman married a man, and he divorced her. Then she married another man and gave birth to a daughter. Is this man considered a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to this daughter?
Did he have intercourse with her or not?Meaning: Did the first husband have intercourse with the woman?The questioner: He had intercourse with her.

The Shaykh: In that case, he is a mahram to her.Read the saying of Allah (Mighty and Majestic):
and your step-daughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives unto whom you have gone in. But if you have not gone in unto them, there is no sin upon you.وَرَبَائِبُكُمُ اللَّاتِي فِي حُجُورِكُمْ مِنْ نِسَائِكُمُ اللَّاتِي دَخَلْتُمْ بِهِنَّ فَإِنْ لَمْ تَكُونُوا دَخَلْتُمْ بِهِنَّ فَلا جُنَاحَ عَلَيْكُمْ
[al-Nisa: 23].
Even the daughter from before, he is a mahram to her.Meaning: If a man marries a woman—take this as a rule—she is a mahram to all her daughters, provided he has had intercourse with her.
Source shamela.ws

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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