Is a man considered a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to his wife's daughter if he has had intercourse with her?

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The questioner : A woman married a man, then he divorced her, and then she married another man and gave birth to a daughter. Is this daughter... is this man a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to this daughter?

The Shaykh : Did he have intercourse with her or not? I mean, did the first husband have intercourse with the woman?

The questioner : He had intercourse with her.

The Shaykh : Well, in that case, he is a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to her. Read the saying of Allah (Mighty and Majestic):

and your step-daughters under your guardianship [born] of your wives unto whom you have gone in. But if you have not gone in unto them, there is no sin upon you.

وَرَبَائِبُكُمُ اللَّاتِي فِي حُجُورِكُمْ مِنْ نِسَائِكُمُ اللَّاتِي دَخَلْتُمْ بِهِنَّ فَإِنْ لَمْ تَكُونُوا دَخَلْتُمْ بِهِنَّ فَلا جُنَاحَ عَلَيْكُمْ

[An-Nisa 4:23]

Even the child before... ah, the daughter from before is a mahram (a relative one may not marry) to her. That is, if a person marries a woman—take this as a rule—if he marries a woman, all her daughters are mahram (a relative one may not marry) to him, provided he has had intercourse with her.

Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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