Ibn Hajar mentioned that the mention of "Muslims" in the hadith is by way of predominance, but if "Muslim women" are mentioned, do men fall under this?

The questioner : May Allah reward you. The Hafiz, when mentioning this hadith, says: "The saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) 'Muslims' is a masculine plural here, by way of predominance, and that females are included in this plural." The rule is that females are not included in a masculine plural except by a sign, such as in the saying of Allah the Exalted in Surat al-Tahrim: So how is the answer to this?

The Shaykh : Such a matter is not difficult. Most of the addresses in the Qur'an, and likewise in the Sunnah, when a group is mentioned, it refers to a group of males. For example, "Indeed, Allah loves the doers of good," "Allah loves the righteous," "Allah does not love the wrongdoers," and the like. Most of what comes in the Qur'an and Sunnah when a group is mentioned refers to a group of males, and there is no doubt that this includes females. Likewise, if a term for a group of females comes, it includes males, such as the saying of Allah the Exalted: , and the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): Do men fall under this? Do you mean the false accusation of men? Yes, it includes them. The original rule is that what is formulated for females includes males, and what is formulated for males includes females. This is the original rule, unless there is evidence. One form of evidence is when this is paired with that, such as the saying of Allah the Exalted: and the like. Here we say that "Muslims" is specific to the group of males, and "Muslim women" is specific to the group of females. Otherwise, the original rule is this. In , here we have an accuser and an accused. The accuser is mentioned with the masculine term, and the accused is added to the feminine. So if a woman were to accuse a man, meaning the opposite of what came in the noble verse, does the ruling apply or not? It applies, without doubt.