It is mentioned in the hadith (that they do not purify). If we say that purity is a legal ruling, then if we validate it with what is forbidden, does it contradict the prohibition?

The Shaykh : Yes?

The questioner : If it is said regarding the hadith: If it is said: that purity is a legal ruling, and if we validate it with what is forbidden, does it contradict the prohibition? Is this correct?

The Shaykh : No, this is not correct.

The questioner : What is the explanation, O Shaykh?

The Shaykh : Let us see the wording first, yes?

The questioner : Regarding istinja' (cleaning oneself after relieving oneself) facing the qiblah, we said that it is permissible.

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : If someone were to say: that the non-mention of istinja' is in the category of urination and defecation?

The Shaykh : I do not think it is necessary. If we said this, we would say that this is forbidden, and no one has said it is forbidden as far as we know, and it is not necessary.

The questioner : Shaykh, may Allah reward you: Regarding his saying: Because he ordered him the first time and he went and did not find it, so when he knew that he did not find it the third time, he ordered him to bring it.

The Shaykh : No, no, the dung is close, close to the two stones, so he took them and brought them, and it is known that if he said: he would search more, is the difficulty resolved?

The questioner : Yes.

The Shaykh : Praise be to Allah.