If a man marries a slave woman and she bears him a child, the child is a slave belonging to her owner. If the man then purchases the slave woman (his wife), she becomes his property.
Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : If a man marries a slave woman and she bears him a child, the child is a slave belonging to her owner. If the man then purchases the slave woman "his wife", she becomes his property, but what is the status of the child?
The Shaykh : The child is a slave belonging to the master.
The Shaykh : The child is a slave belonging to the master.
