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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If a man marries a slave woman and she bears him a child, the child is a slave belonging to her owner. If the man then purchases the slave woman (his wife), she becomes his property.

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : If a man marries a slave woman and she bears him a child, the child is a slave belonging to her owner. If the man then purchases the slave woman "his wife", she becomes his property, but what is the status of the child?

The Shaykh : The child is a slave belonging to the master.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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