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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Allah the Exalted said: << . . . . She said, "My father is calling you to reward you for the water you gave us." When he came to him and related the story to him, he said, "Do not fear.

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He said: "
out of shyness على استحياء
That is, she was placing the sleeve of her garment over her face out of shyness from him"
Ibn Kathir mentioned this from 'Umar t, and he said that its chain of narration is valid. Such a statement from 'Umar may be by way of conjecture; he may have conjectured, may Allah be pleased with him, that she was placing the sleeve of her garment over her face. However, that is not what is indicated in the verse. What is the "sleeve of the garment" over the face? The garment that people call... like our garment here is called a "dir'" (garment), because it is like the armor worn in war. But how did she place her sleeve over her face? Like this, out of shyness from him.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : No, the one with wide sleeves; this is what is called a "dir'" (garment). For women, it must be very wide. Yes, that is correct.
She said:
Indeed, my father invites you that he may reward you إن أبي يدعوك ليجزيك
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
I have a question regarding
My father.أبي
It is known that the five proper nouns are declined with a yā' in the accusative case, so here it is declined with a yā' in his statement:
My fatherإن أبي
?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : Allah knows best? ... Okay, what is the evidence from the words of Ibn Malik?
The student:

The Shaykh : The evidence from the words of Ibn Malik is that it is a condition that it not be attached to the yā' of the first-person singular pronoun.
The student:
And the condition in inflection is that it be attached, not to the yā of the first person, like: "Your brother, the son of your father, the one who is noble" والشرط في الإعراب أن يضاف لا لليا كجا أخو أبيك ذو اعتلا

The Shaykh :
And the condition in inflection is that it be attached, not to the yā of the first person, like: "Your brother, the son of your father, the one who is noble"والشرط في الإعراب أن يضاف لا لليا كجا أخو أبيك ذو اعتلا
Yes, and here it is attached to the yā', and for this reason we say:
My father.أبي
The name of "inna" is in the accusative case with a hidden fathah on the letter before the yā' of the first-person singular pronoun—what prevented its appearance—?
The student: The occupation of the place by the corresponding movement.

The Shaykh : The occupation of the place by the corresponding movement... The speech of the common people; they say:
My two fathersقال أبوي
This is common speech... Okay.
Indeed, my father invites you that he may reward youإن أبي يدعوك ليجزيك
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
The lām is for the purpose, meaning: he is calling you for this purpose. And the meaning of
reward youيجزيك
is to reward you... The reward comes from
to reward, he rewardsجزا يجزي
And regarding his statement:
reward you for having watered for us أجر ما سقيت لنا
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
We say: "He was to reward you" means to give you the reward or its equivalent. So the reward is the compensation taken in exchange for work. And his statement:
for having watered for us ما سقيت لنا
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
means for our sake. And
notما
in his statement:
what you watered ما سقيت
Is it conditional? It is not conditional. Is it relative? It is not relative either... It is nominal, meaning to reward you for the watering of your [sheep]. And "the reward of the one who watered" is not appropriate, because he intends the reward of the one who watered, not the reward of the watering? The reward of the watering. And on this basis,
notما
is nominal. If he had said: "The reward of the one who watered," it would become the reward of the sheep, and she does not intend to give him the reward of the sheep; rather, she intends for her father to reward him for the watering of the sheep. Therefore, it is established that it is nominal here. And the lām in his statement:
for us لنا
is like it in his statement:
So he gave them a drink فسقى لهما
, meaning that it is for the purpose and not for transitivity.
"So he answered her" So Moses answered her, meaning he answered the call of her father. "Denying in his heart the taking of a wage, meaning he answered her while concealing that he would not take a wage. From where did they take this? They said: Because Moses did that for Allah, and whoever does something for Allah cannot take a wage in this world. But this does not specify that Moses was taking a wage. If we were asked: Do you testify that Moses, in that state when he answered the call, concealed in his heart the taking of a wage? Do you testify or not? We do not testify; we do not know. Moses, peace and blessings be upon him, may have been taking a wage because he was in need and took it to meet his need. Or he may not have taken it out of generosity. If a person takes a wage in advance for what he does for Allah, and then is rewarded for it, there is no harm in him taking it if he is rewarded for it. Indeed, the Messenger, peace and blessings be upon him, when he appointed 'Umar as a collector of alms and gave him [a share], [Umar] said: Give it to someone poorer than me. Then the Messenger said:
out of this wealth which comes to you without your being avaricious and without beggingما جاءك من هذا المال وأنت غير مشرف ولا سائل فخذه
Sahih Muslim 1045a
And it is known that 'Umar was not looking to take... as evidenced by the fact that he said: Give it to someone poorer than me. The Messenger said: Take it. So a person who does a work for Allah, if he is rewarded for it, his work is not invalidated as long as his intention was originally sincere for Allah. Therefore, the claim that Moses was denying in his heart the taking of a wage has no evidence; there is no evidence for it, and we have no right to speak about this... And as for... by way of reward, if he is one who wants it, [it is] prepared for him... meaning the reward for what you watered for us. And it is known that a wage does not exist except by contract, a contract of hire. Did a contract of hire occur between Moses and the two women for him to water for them? No, but it seems she intended by the reward, if he is one who wants it, so she named this reward a wage.
"
So she walked in front of him, and the wind blew her garment, revealing her legs. So he said to her: Walk behind me and show me the way." Yes, this is the story... but they bring it as an introduction to her statement:
Indeed, the best of those you hire is the strong and trustworthy one إن خير من استأجرت القوي الأمين
And it has been mentioned previously that he removed the great rock which... except ten.
The student: Of the one of strength.

The Shaykh : Of the one of strength, and here for the sake of trustworthiness.
"
So she did so until she came to her father, who was Shu'ayb, peace be upon him, and with him... So he said to him: Ask, and he delayed. He said: I fear that it will be a compensation for what I watered for them, and we are a family who do not seek compensation for a good deed. He said: No, my custom and the custom of my fathers is to honor the guest and feed food. So he ate, and he informed him of the situation." All of this has no evidence; there is no evidence for it. And what has evidence is that Moses, peace be upon him, answered the call and walked until he reached the father. And this is sufficient for us to believe what the Book and the Sunnah indicate... from the Qur'an regarding this story. As for bringing something that is not mentioned in the verse, no.
He says:
So when he came to him and related to him the story فلما جاءه وقص عليه القصص
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
The doer: in
came to himجاءه
who? Moses, and he related to him, meaning Moses, the story... meaning the related matter, because "al-qasas" is a verbal noun. Allah the Exalted said:
So they turned back on their tracks, following one another فارتدا على آثارهما قصصا
meaning they track the trail by tracking, and "al-qasas"... because the related matter is tracked. And on this basis, it is a verbal noun in the meaning of the passive participle. And a verbal noun in the meaning of the passive participle occurs often, like his statement:
And if they should be pregnant, then spend on them وإن كن أولات حمل فأنفقوا عليهن
[At-Talaq 65:6]
"Those who are pregnant," meaning those who are carried. And also his statement, peace be upon him:
He who did any act for which there is no sanction from our behalf, that is to be rejected. من عمل عملا ليس عليه أمرنا فهو رد
Sahih Muslim 1718b
Because the verse... because the intended one is the woman. In any case, here "al-qasas" we say is a verbal noun in the meaning of the related matter. Why do we not make it a verbal noun in its true meaning? Because "al-qasas" is an action; "al-qasas" is the action of the narrator, and it is not something that is narrated from, but rather what is narrated from and tracked is the related matter, meaning the case or the story or the like. That is what is tracked. What is the story that he related to him? He said: From his killing of the Egyptian, and their intention to kill him, and his fear of Pharaoh. He related to him his entire case, that he was in Egypt, for example, and that... he killed the Egyptian, and that a man came to him and advised him to flee, and that he fled. And for this reason he said: "The story." He said: "Do not fear." This
He said:قال
is the answer to "when." When Moses came to him and related the story to him, he said—meaning the man of Madyan—:
Fear not. You have escaped from the wrongdoing people." لا تخف نجوت من القوم الظالمين
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
Do not fearلا تخف
The lām here is prohibitive, and the intended meaning is true prohibition. Is the intended meaning to reassure this man? To reassure him. And on this basis, his statement "You have escaped from the people of the wrongdoers" is an affirmation of the sentence in meaning, meaning: There is no fear for you because you have escaped from the people of the wrongdoers. And glory to Allah the Great, the speech of this man matched the question of Moses. Moses came out of it fearful, expecting [danger], and said: "My Lord, save me from the people of the wrongdoers." So the answer came here from this man: "Do not fear, you have escaped from the people of the wrongdoers."
Do not fearلا تخف
is the answer to his statement:
fearful, looking aheadخائفا يترقب
,
you have been saved from the oppressive peopleنجوت من القوم الظالمين
As-Sunan al-Kubra lil-Nasa'i 65:348
is the answer to his statement:
save me from the oppressive peopleنجني من القوم الظالمين
Al-Mustadrak lil-Hakim 25:964
So the answer of this man matched the question of Moses. And thus the answer of Allah the Exalted to the distressed one is exactly matching his question, since Pharaoh has no authority over Madyan. And this is the apparent meaning: that he reassured him that he had escaped from the people of the wrongdoers, because the authority of Pharaoh is now only in Egypt and its surroundings. As for Madyan, Pharaoh has no authority over it, for if he had authority over it, he would not have escaped from them; he would not have escaped from the people of the wrongdoers.
The student: ...

The Shaykh : ... close to Egypt. It was mentioned in the author's speech that it is eight days from Egypt, but in terms of boundaries, boundaries, as you know, are not a small thing... Two kingdoms with only a hypothetical line between them.
He said:
Fear not. You have escaped from the wrongdoing people." لا تخف نجوت من القوم الظالمين
[Al-Qasas 28:25]
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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