Explanation of the author's statement: "His prayer was not accepted for forty days."
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The Shaykh : And his statement (peace and blessings be upon him): Sunan an-Nasa'i 5669Da'if (Darussalam) Does the negation of acceptance here imply the negation of validity, or not? We say no. The negation of acceptance is either due to the loss of a condition or the presence of a barrier. In these two cases, the negation of acceptance is a negation of validity, just as if I said, "Whoever prays while carrying impurity, his prayer is not accepted." The negation of acceptance is a negation of validity; it does not necessarily imply that. Rather, the intended meaning of the negated acceptance is complete acceptance, which is that which brings about complete satisfaction and complete reward. Or it can be said that another aspect is that the negation of acceptance here is because the evil deed he committed counterbalances that good deed in the scale. So when it counterbalances it, yes, they cancel each other out; one drops the other. The summary is that if you find a negation of acceptance in the Qur'an or the Sunnah, if it is due to the loss of a condition or the presence of a barrier, it is a negation of validity. If it is for something else, namely for an evil deed, the negation of acceptance is as in this hadith and as in the hadith Sunan an-Nasa'i 5669Da'if (Darussalam) and what is similar to it. Then this negation intends one of two things: either it intends complete acceptance, and complete acceptance means it will not be accepted in a way of completeness that brings about complete reward; or it intends by the negation of acceptance that this evil deed counterbalances that good deed and drops it, and its weight becomes equivalent to the reward of that good deed. And if it has no reward, it becomes as if it was not accepted, even if it was sufficient and absolved the conscience. But the reward that was obtained by it was counterbalanced by what? By the evil deed, so it dropped it.
And his statement: We cannot explain the reason for this. I do not know its reason, because a thing prescribed by a number, a person generally cannot know its wisdom. So the fact that the prayer is fifty prayers or five prayers, we do not know why it was specified as five or fifty. This is among the matters intended for worship, and worshiping Allah with what you do not know the wisdom of is more eloquent than worshiping Him with what you know the wisdom of. It is true that what you know the wisdom of gives a person more peace of mind, but what you do not know the wisdom of, a person submitting to it without knowing the wisdom, is evidence of what? Of perfect submission and worship of Allah (Mighty and Majestic). So in terms of servitude, it is more eloquent and more complete. Is that clear? As for that, it is more eloquent in terms of peace of mind regarding the ruling, because when the soul knows the wisdom in something, it is at peace with it without doubt and increases in taking it and accepting it. But if it does not know the wisdom and then submits despite not knowing the wisdom, that becomes more complete in submission and servitude. So there are things that the Shari'ah has specified by number or manner, and we do not know what the wisdom in them is, but our way is to say, as Allah said about the believers, or to be as Allah said about the believers: [Al-Ahzab 33:36] So upon us is submission, obedience, and entrusting the matter to its Knower.
It is taken from this hadith: Is it forbidden to visit a fortune-teller and ask him, or not? It is forbidden to visit him and ask him, because of the great harms that follow from that, such as encouraging them in this work and enticing people to them, and they mostly come up with things that are all invalid. And we know that the word "asked him" is not absolute, but rather asking him is divided into three categories. Yes.
The student: ... these categories ... .
The Shaykh : Which one? No, it didn't happen, no, I did not tell him what the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) had hidden for him.
The student: It is the one he hid, and it is the one that appeared.
The Shaykh : Yes.
The student: I did not understand.
The Shaykh : The point is that he knew its origin, and for this he said:Sahih al-Bukhari 6618 .
The student: His saying "Be gone" indicates that he did not know.
The Shaykh : He made it clear, he made it clear, yes, the wording was not complete ... but he knew that it was something of this type.
The student: So we cannot say that he knew, meaning he knew by estimation ... .
The Shaykh : No, no, no, it ... but he knew that the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) had hidden this thing for him, so the Messenger said: It is what suits you because it has no origin and because it is scattered dust, meaning it flies away and has no reality. This is what appears. And the issue can be said to be that this man was not able to fully master the knowledge, and at that time the Messenger asked him to reveal his inability. This is possible; what I mentioned is possible.
The student: ... this is not disobedience.
The Shaykh : No, if it is that he is not believing him, and even if he believed him, he just wants to see it, yes, this man, perhaps if he knew it was true, he would warn against it, or if he had authority, he would discipline him or something like that. It might be for an intended purpose. And for this we said this is only from the category of what is permissible, which, if it is intended for good, if he asked him to see if it is true that he is a fortune-teller, he would discipline him and punish him, or warn against him, then this permissible thing turns into a required matter. But if the intention is to reveal his inability from the start to humiliate him before people and show his failure, then this is a required matter.
The student: ... .
The Shaykh : It appears, and Allah knows best, that the author, either the copy from which Shaykh Muhammad (may Allah have mercy on him) quoted had this wording, that he believed him, or that there is a narration in other than Muslim, so he attributed it to Muslim based on its origin. Do you have anything in it?
The reader: It says: "It was narrated by Muslim from one of the wives of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), and its wording is:Sahih Muslim 2230 And the phrase is not in *Sahih Muslim*, but rather it is in Ahmad in *Al-Musnad* from one of the wives of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), and its wording in Ahmad is Riyad as-Salihin 1669 " .
The Shaykh : It seems that the author (may Allah have mercy on him), if there was not a copy in Muslim, took from this and that, so he took from Muslim, so he asked him, and he took from Ahmad, so he believed him, because "asked him" is not found in Ahmad and is found in Muslim. Yes.
The student: It is not specified that the question is a forbidden question ... .
The Shaykh : No, if we establish that he believed him, then you have only one category, yes, but what is it, the narration ... .
The questioner : If the narration is authentic, this division does not apply.
The Shaykh : No, but it is not taken from this hadith, but from the general evidences, it is certain.
The questioner : Meaning it remains?
The Shaykh : The division remains in any case, but the discussion is about the hadith. If it contains "asked him" only, then the division applies to it, that we make this absolute "asked him" qualified by the three conditions.
his Salah will not be accepted for 40 days
لم تقبل له صلاة أربعين يوماًhis Salah will not be accepted for 40 days
من شرب الخمر لم تقبل له صلاة أربعين يوماًAnd his statement:
Forty days.
أربعين يوماIt is not for a believing man or a believing woman, when Allah and His Messenger have decided a matter, that they should [thereafter] have any choice about their affair
وَمَا كَانَ لِمُؤْمِنٍ وَلا مُؤْمِنَةٍ إِذَا قَضَى اللَّهُ وَرَسُولُهُ أَمْراً أَنْ يَكُونَ لَهُمُ الْخِيَرَةُ مِنْ أَمْرِهِمْIt is taken from this hadith: Is it forbidden to visit a fortune-teller and ask him, or not? It is forbidden to visit him and ask him, because of the great harms that follow from that, such as encouraging them in this work and enticing people to them, and they mostly come up with things that are all invalid. And we know that the word "asked him" is not absolute, but rather asking him is divided into three categories. Yes.
The student: ... these categories ... .
The Shaykh : Which one? No, it didn't happen, no, I did not tell him what the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) had hidden for him.
The student: It is the one he hid, and it is the one that appeared.
The Shaykh : Yes.
The student: I did not understand.
The Shaykh : The point is that he knew its origin, and for this he said:
Keep quiet, for you cannot go beyond your limits (or you cannot exceed what has been foreordained for you).
اخسأ فلن تعدو قدركThe student: His saying "Be gone" indicates that he did not know.
The Shaykh : He made it clear, he made it clear, yes, the wording was not complete ... but he knew that it was something of this type.
The student: So we cannot say that he knew, meaning he knew by estimation ... .
The Shaykh : No, no, no, it ... but he knew that the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) had hidden this thing for him, so the Messenger said:
This smoke
هذا الدخانThe student: ... this is not disobedience.
The Shaykh : No, if it is that he is not believing him, and even if he believed him, he just wants to see it, yes, this man, perhaps if he knew it was true, he would warn against it, or if he had authority, he would discipline him or something like that. It might be for an intended purpose. And for this we said this is only from the category of what is permissible, which, if it is intended for good, if he asked him to see if it is true that he is a fortune-teller, he would discipline him and punish him, or warn against him, then this permissible thing turns into a required matter. But if the intention is to reveal his inability from the start to humiliate him before people and show his failure, then this is a required matter.
The student: ... .
The Shaykh : It appears, and Allah knows best, that the author, either the copy from which Shaykh Muhammad (may Allah have mercy on him) quoted had this wording, that he believed him, or that there is a narration in other than Muslim, so he attributed it to Muslim based on its origin. Do you have anything in it?
The reader: It says: "It was narrated by Muslim from one of the wives of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him), and its wording is:
He who visits a diviner ('Arraf) and asks him about anything, his prayers extending to forty nights will not be accepted.
من أتى عرافا فسأله عن شيء لم تقبل له صلاة أربعين ليلةAnd he believed him in what he says
فصدقه بما يقولHe who goes to one who claims to tell about matters of the Unseen and believes in him, his Salat (prayers) will not be accepted for forty days.
من أتى عرافا فصدقه بما يقول لم تقبل له صلاة أربعين يوماThe Shaykh : It seems that the author (may Allah have mercy on him), if there was not a copy in Muslim, took from this and that, so he took from Muslim, so he asked him, and he took from Ahmad, so he believed him, because "asked him" is not found in Ahmad and is found in Muslim. Yes.
The student:
The phrase "believes what he says"
جملة صدقه بما يقولThe Shaykh : No, if we establish that he believed him, then you have only one category, yes, but what is it, the narration ... .
The questioner : If the narration is authentic, this division does not apply.
The Shaykh : No, but it is not taken from this hadith, but from the general evidences, it is certain.
The questioner : Meaning it remains?
The Shaykh : The division remains in any case, but the discussion is about the hadith. If it contains "asked him" only, then the division applies to it, that we make this absolute "asked him" qualified by the three conditions.