Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And they omit it, leaving the predicate *** And after 'in' and 'law' this has become well known."
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The Shaykh :"And they omit it, leaving the predicate *** And after 'in' and 'law' this has become well known"
This is the second characteristic: that it is omitted while its predicate remains. This is of two types: frequent and rare. The frequent type is "*** And after 'in' and 'law' this has become well known"
First, his statement: "they omit it". The conjunction "wa" refers to the Arabs, for they are the ones who formulate speech. As for the grammarians, they are in the position of pharmacists who examine the structures of speech, but they do not judge the Arabs. So the "wa" in his statement: "they omit it" refers to whom? To the Arabs.
"and they leave the predicate", meaning its predicate. "and after 'in'", the conditional "in". "and 'law'", the conditional "law". "this has become well known frequently". As for the first hemistich, its grammatical analysis is clear.
The second hemistich: "after 'in' and 'law'". "After" is an adverb of place, in the accusative case due to being an adverb, and its sign of accusative is the fathah on its end. It is connected to "ash'tahara" (became well known), which follows. "After" is a noun with a genitive, and "in" is the genitive noun, built on sukun in the position of genitive.
The student: It is in the genitive case with a hidden kasrah.
The Shaykh : Is my statement correct here?
The student: ...
The Shaykh : "In" is a genitive noun, built on sukun in the position of genitive. No, this is a mistake. This is a mistake. "In": it is a genitive noun, in the genitive case due to the genitive relationship, and its sign of genitive is the hidden kasrah on its end, prevented from appearing by the rule of hikayah (quotation). And "law" is conjoined to "in".
And "frequently": it is an attribute for a deleted verbal noun, and its operator is his statement: "ash'tahara", meaning it became well known with a great deal of fame.
And "this": it is a subject (mubtada'), built on sukun in the position of nominative, because it is a demonstrative pronoun. And "ash'tahara" is a past tense verb, and the sentence is the predicate (khabar) of the subject.
Now, he says (may Allah have mercy on him): The Arabs omit "kana" and leave its predicate. Look, "they omit it", they omit "kana" and nothing else, and they leave the predicate. So it is omitted along with its subject, and this is after "in" and "law" frequently. Yes.
And from this is their saying: "People are recompensed for their deeds; if good, then good, and if evil, then evil." Meaning, if their deeds are good, then their recompense is good, and if their deeds are evil, then their recompense is evil. And it is known from his statement: "they omit it" that they do not omit the present tense verb, but this is not correct. The correct view is that it is permissible to omit it even in the form of the present tense. And from this is the saying of Allah the Exalted:[An-Nisa 4:171] And from this is the saying of Allah the Exalted: [At-Taghabun 64:16] And as for "in kana," this is not like the first, because it is possible that "khayran" (good) is the object. As for the first: [An-Nisa 4:171] The intended meaning is: "it would be good for you." And this, as you know, is "kana" in the form of the present tense, omitted along with its subject, and its predicate remained, in the most eloquent speech on the face of the earth, which is the speech of Allah, Mighty and Majestic. Now, he says thirdly:
This is the second characteristic: that it is omitted while its predicate remains. This is of two types: frequent and rare. The frequent type is "*** And after 'in' and 'law' this has become well known"
First, his statement: "they omit it". The conjunction "wa" refers to the Arabs, for they are the ones who formulate speech. As for the grammarians, they are in the position of pharmacists who examine the structures of speech, but they do not judge the Arabs. So the "wa" in his statement: "they omit it" refers to whom? To the Arabs.
"and they leave the predicate", meaning its predicate. "and after 'in'", the conditional "in". "and 'law'", the conditional "law". "this has become well known frequently". As for the first hemistich, its grammatical analysis is clear.
The second hemistich: "after 'in' and 'law'". "After" is an adverb of place, in the accusative case due to being an adverb, and its sign of accusative is the fathah on its end. It is connected to "ash'tahara" (became well known), which follows. "After" is a noun with a genitive, and "in" is the genitive noun, built on sukun in the position of genitive.
The student: It is in the genitive case with a hidden kasrah.
The Shaykh : Is my statement correct here?
The student: ...
The Shaykh : "In" is a genitive noun, built on sukun in the position of genitive. No, this is a mistake. This is a mistake. "In": it is a genitive noun, in the genitive case due to the genitive relationship, and its sign of genitive is the hidden kasrah on its end, prevented from appearing by the rule of hikayah (quotation). And "law" is conjoined to "in".
And "frequently": it is an attribute for a deleted verbal noun, and its operator is his statement: "ash'tahara", meaning it became well known with a great deal of fame.
And "this": it is a subject (mubtada'), built on sukun in the position of nominative, because it is a demonstrative pronoun. And "ash'tahara" is a past tense verb, and the sentence is the predicate (khabar) of the subject.
Now, he says (may Allah have mercy on him): The Arabs omit "kana" and leave its predicate. Look, "they omit it", they omit "kana" and nothing else, and they leave the predicate. So it is omitted along with its subject, and this is after "in" and "law" frequently. Yes.
And from this is their saying: "People are recompensed for their deeds; if good, then good, and if evil, then evil." Meaning, if their deeds are good, then their recompense is good, and if their deeds are evil, then their recompense is evil. And it is known from his statement: "they omit it" that they do not omit the present tense verb, but this is not correct. The correct view is that it is permissible to omit it even in the form of the present tense. And from this is the saying of Allah the Exalted: