Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And separation may permit the omission of the ta in *** such as: The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood."
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The Shaykh :"And separation may permit the omission of the ta in *** such as: The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood"
"May permit" — the word "may" here indicates diminution, and "permit" means to allow. Separation means the separation between the verb and the doer. It may allow the omission of the ta. An example of this is: "The daughter of the one who stood came to the judge." In this example, the verb must be made feminine, because the doer is a true feminine noun that is connected to the verb. Do we stay or go? "The daughter of the one who stood came to the judge." Here, what is required? The feminization of the verb, because the doer is a true feminine noun that is connected. If there is separation, Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) says: "And separation may permit the omission of the ta". It may permit it, but it is better not to omit it. An example of separation is: "The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood." Here, "the judge" is a separator between the verb and the doer. It is permissible to say: "The daughter of the one who stood came to the judge," and this is the stronger position. It is also permissible to say: "The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood." I think this is clear?
The student: It is clear.
The Shaykh : Now, "Hind struck her boy." Here, is the feminization required or not?
The student: Yes, it is required.
The Shaykh : It is required. Why? Because the doer is what? A true feminine noun that is connected. "Hind struck her boy"?
The student: The feminization is not required.
The Shaykh : The feminization is not required. It is permissible to say: "Hind struck her boy," and this is the weaker position. Or: "Hind struck her boy," and this is the stronger position. Because we said that this is the stronger position, as indicated by the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) when he said: "And separation may permit". Now, "Hind came out of the house." Is the feminization required?
The student: It is not obligatory.
The Shaykh : It is not required. Why?
The student: Because of the separation.
The Shaykh : Because of the separation. It is permissible to say: "Hind came out of the house," and "Hind came out of the house." Is this clear?
"And separation may permit the omission of the ta in *** such as: The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood".
"May permit" — the word "may" here indicates diminution, and "permit" means to allow. Separation means the separation between the verb and the doer. It may allow the omission of the ta. An example of this is: "The daughter of the one who stood came to the judge." In this example, the verb must be made feminine, because the doer is a true feminine noun that is connected to the verb. Do we stay or go? "The daughter of the one who stood came to the judge." Here, what is required? The feminization of the verb, because the doer is a true feminine noun that is connected. If there is separation, Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) says: "And separation may permit the omission of the ta". It may permit it, but it is better not to omit it. An example of separation is: "The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood." Here, "the judge" is a separator between the verb and the doer. It is permissible to say: "The daughter of the one who stood came to the judge," and this is the stronger position. It is also permissible to say: "The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood." I think this is clear?
The student: It is clear.
The Shaykh : Now, "Hind struck her boy." Here, is the feminization required or not?
The student: Yes, it is required.
The Shaykh : It is required. Why? Because the doer is what? A true feminine noun that is connected. "Hind struck her boy"?
The student: The feminization is not required.
The Shaykh : The feminization is not required. It is permissible to say: "Hind struck her boy," and this is the weaker position. Or: "Hind struck her boy," and this is the stronger position. Because we said that this is the stronger position, as indicated by the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) when he said: "And separation may permit". Now, "Hind came out of the house." Is the feminization required?
The student: It is not obligatory.
The Shaykh : It is not required. Why?
The student: Because of the separation.
The Shaykh : Because of the separation. It is permissible to say: "Hind came out of the house," and "Hind came out of the house." Is this clear?
"And separation may permit the omission of the ta in *** such as: The judge came, the daughter of the one who stood".