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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the author's (may Allah have mercy on him) statement: "… and the verb is identified by qad, the sin, sawfa, and the silent feminine taa …"

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh : He said: "The verb is identified by qad, the sin, sawfa, and the silent feminine taa". These are four signs. Every word preceded by qad is a verb. Every word preceded by the sin or sawfa is a verb. Every word ending with the silent feminine taa is a verb. Is that clear? Good.
The first example:
Certainly will the believers have succeeded: قد أفلح المؤمنون
[Al-Mu'minun 23:1]
"Aflaha" (He has succeeded) is a verb; the evidence is the entry of qad. "Al-mu'minun" (The believers) is a noun; the evidence is the entry of alif and lam. Good. It is identified by the sin:
Nay, they will know كلا سيعلمون
They will know سيعلمون
"Ya'lamun" (They know) is a verb. What is its sign?
The student: The sin.

The Shaykh : The entry of the sin. Good. In the surah "Al-Haqqah":
No! You are going to know. كلا سوف تعلمون
[At-Takathur 102:3]
"Sawfa ta'lamun" (You will know) is a verb; the evidence is the entry of sawfa. So, every word upon which the sin enters is a verb, and every word upon which sawfa enters is a verb. Good. We say every word upon which the sin enters. Pay attention: if the sin is part of the word itself, it is not a verb. It may be a verb, or it may not be. For example, "sihr" (magic). We do not say "sihr" is a verb because it contains the sin. Rather, we say the sin entered it. The sin is not part of its structure; the sin is not part of its structure, but is external to the word's structure. Look at "ya'lamun" (they know). The first part of the verb is "ya'lamun"; the sin is what entered the verb.
And the author (may Allah have mercy on him) said here: "The silent feminine taa". The silent feminine taa. He stipulated two conditions, or rather three conditions: the taa is feminine, and it is silent. He did not say "with the taa"; he said: "The silent feminine taa". So, every word ending with the silent feminine taa is a verb. Every word ending with the silent feminine taa is a verb.
The Bedouins said قالت الأعراب
The Bedouins said قالت الأعراب
He asked, "What do you say about it?"
The student: A verb.

The Shaykh : A verb. Why? Because it ended with the silent feminine taa.
The Bedouins said قالت الأعراب
Good.
and said, "[I am] a barren old woman!" وقالت عجوزٌ عقيم
[Adh-Dhariyat 51:29]
"Qalat" (She said) is a verb because it ended with the silent feminine taa. Good.
If the word ended with a taa other than the feminine taa, like "bayt" (house). "Bayt" ends with a taa, but it is not for femininity. Do we say "bayt" is a verb? No. It has a taa at the end, but the taa here is not for femininity; rather, it is part of the word's structure.
Good. The silent feminine taa is specified to exclude the non-silent one. If the feminine taa is not silent, it is not a sign of a verb. You say "shajarah" (tree). "Shajarah": is this taa the feminine taa or not? This is "baqarah" (cow). This is a feminine taa, but is it silent or not silent? Not silent. So, we do not say "shajarah" is a verb. Why did we not say it is a verb? Because the feminine taa is not silent. "Baqarah": we do not say it is a verb. Why? Because the feminine taa is not silent. "Rahmah" (mercy). He said:
This is mercy from my Lord هذا رحمةٌ من ربي
"Rahmah." Here, is "rahmah" a verb? Why? Because the feminine taa is not silent. Good. So, the verb has four signs: qad, which is at its beginning; the sin and sawfa, which are at its beginning; the feminine taa, which is at its end; and the silent feminine taa, which is at its end. Is that clear, everyone? Good.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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