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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "Likewise, if the verb follows what did not come *** and what came before was found to be an object of what came after."

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The Shaykh : He said:
"Likewise, if the verb follows what did not come *** and what came before was found to be an object of what came after"
It means: there is some awkwardness in this. "Likewise, if the verb follows" means: likewise, the nominative case is obligatory. "If the verb follows" How do we parse the verb?
The student: ...

The Shaykh : As a subject, or as a subject placed before the verb, or as the subject of a deleted verb, according to different opinions. Now, "follows what did not come", meaning: follows that which did not come. "What came before", meaning: what came before it. "an object of what came after", meaning: an object of what came after it. "was found", meaning: if the verb follows a particle that does not govern what comes before it, the nominative case is obligatory. Pay attention! If the verb that is occupied with the preceding pronoun comes after a particle that does not govern what comes before it, then the nominative case is determined. Why? Because what comes after the particle cannot exert its effect on what comes before it. Among these are the interrogative particles; interrogative particles do not govern what comes before them, because the interrogative particle has the head of the sentence. If what comes after it governed what came before it, it would not have the head of the sentence, because the object of what came after it preceded it. For example, we say: "Zayd, does his brother honor him?"
The student: Correct.

The Shaykh : "Zayd, does his brother honor him?" Zayd is now located before a particle that does not govern what comes before it, because it is an interrogative particle, "hal." Now, if I said: "Zayd, does his brother honor him?" (with the accusative case), is that permissible or not?
The student: This is not permissible.

The Shaykh : It is not permissible. Why? Because what comes after "hal" does not govern what comes before it. Therefore, the verb that comes after it cannot exert its effect on the noun that comes before it. And Allah knows best.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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