Continuation of the previous: Likewise, the one with the simile after his clause *** Every [one] weeps, the weeping of one with a calamity
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The Shaykh :"Likewise, the one with the simile" means: the source indicating the simile, "after his clause", for example: "I weep". "I weep" Is the clause now complete, or not?
The student: It is complete.
The Shaykh : It is complete. Is this weeping described as easy, or as intense? He said: "the weeping of one with a calamity". This weeping is a source noun. The implied meaning is: I weep, I weep, the weeping of one with a calamity. And what is the meaning of 'udlah?
The student: A calamity.
The Shaykh : It is said that 'udlah is a calamity; 'udlah is a calamity. And it is said that 'udlah is being prevented from marriage.
The student: ...
The Shaykh : Which is more severe?
The student: A calamity.
The Shaykh : A calamity is more severe. Generally, a calamity is more severe, because the one who weeps because she is prevented from marriage is weeping for the loss of something that was not possessed, whereas the one who is struck by a calamity is weeping for the occurrence of something?
The student: Something disliked.
The Shaykh : Something disliked, and this is greater. So we say: Weeping is a source noun intended for the sake of simile.
The student: Greater?
The Shaykh : ... A great calamity.
The student: The prohibition?
The Shaykh : We prohibited it, meaning? Hehehe, no. Okay. Weeping: its source noun's operator is omitted by necessity. And the implied meaning is?
The student: I weep.
The Shaykh : I weep. When he says here: bukan, is it shortened intentionally, or for the sake of necessity?
The student: For the sake of necessity.
The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: For the sake of necessity.
The Shaykh : Or is the author intending it? They say that weeping with tears without sound is called bukan (shortened), and with sound it is called bika'.
"My eye wept, and it was right for it to weep *** And weeping and wailing do not avail"
In the first part, "and it was right for it to weep", because the weeping is in the eye. And in the last part, when the sound came: "And weeping and wailing do not avail," Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) intended by bukan the weeping of the eye. But his saying: "the weeping of one with a calamity" indicates that the intended meaning is weeping accompanied by sound. So its shortening is for the sake of necessity: "Every [one] weeps, the weeping of one with a calamity".
The student: The rule?
The Shaykh : What is in the accusative case?
The student: He said bika'a.
The Shaykh : What puts this in the accusative case? This is shortened, like:.
The student: The rule for it?
The Shaykh : The rule: It is obligatory to omit the operator of the source noun if it is intended for the sake of simile after a clause. Yes.
The student: The types of source nouns in these examples?
The Shaykh : Yes?
The student: How many types...?
The Shaykh : ...
The student: It is complete.
The Shaykh : It is complete. Is this weeping described as easy, or as intense? He said: "the weeping of one with a calamity". This weeping is a source noun. The implied meaning is: I weep, I weep, the weeping of one with a calamity. And what is the meaning of 'udlah?
The student: A calamity.
The Shaykh : It is said that 'udlah is a calamity; 'udlah is a calamity. And it is said that 'udlah is being prevented from marriage.
The student: ...
The Shaykh : Which is more severe?
The student: A calamity.
The Shaykh : A calamity is more severe. Generally, a calamity is more severe, because the one who weeps because she is prevented from marriage is weeping for the loss of something that was not possessed, whereas the one who is struck by a calamity is weeping for the occurrence of something?
The student: Something disliked.
The Shaykh : Something disliked, and this is greater. So we say: Weeping is a source noun intended for the sake of simile.
The student: Greater?
The Shaykh : ... A great calamity.
The student: The prohibition?
The Shaykh : We prohibited it, meaning? Hehehe, no. Okay. Weeping: its source noun's operator is omitted by necessity. And the implied meaning is?
The student: I weep.
The Shaykh : I weep. When he says here: bukan, is it shortened intentionally, or for the sake of necessity?
The student: For the sake of necessity.
The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: For the sake of necessity.
The Shaykh : Or is the author intending it? They say that weeping with tears without sound is called bukan (shortened), and with sound it is called bika'.
"My eye wept, and it was right for it to weep *** And weeping and wailing do not avail"
In the first part, "and it was right for it to weep", because the weeping is in the eye. And in the last part, when the sound came: "And weeping and wailing do not avail," Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him) intended by bukan the weeping of the eye. But his saying: "the weeping of one with a calamity" indicates that the intended meaning is weeping accompanied by sound. So its shortening is for the sake of necessity: "Every [one] weeps, the weeping of one with a calamity".
The student: The rule?
The Shaykh : What is in the accusative case?
The student: He said bika'a.
The Shaykh : What puts this in the accusative case? This is shortened, like:
A guidance for the righteous
هدى للمتقينThe student: The rule for it?
The Shaykh : The rule: It is obligatory to omit the operator of the source noun if it is intended for the sake of simile after a clause. Yes.
The student: The types of source nouns in these examples?
The Shaykh : Yes?
The student: How many types...?
The Shaykh : ...