Text copied Link copied

Al-Fatawa – home

﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

Scholar
Search mode

Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And the letter lām and the circumstantial phrase are established with bā' *** And in waqad they indicate the cause."

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh :"And the letter lām and the circumstantial phrase are established with bā' *** And in waqad they indicate the cause"
What does he mean by his saying: "And the letter lām"?
The student: It is extra.

The Shaykh : That is: it comes as an extra letter, it comes as an extra letter, the lām is extra, and this is not the lām of transitivity, so the meaning of it coming as an extra letter is that it has no meaning at all, neither transitivity nor anything else. Do you have the example in the commentary?
The student: His saying, the Exalted:
If you are interpreters of dreams إِنْ كُنتُمْ لِلرُّؤْيَا تَعْبُرُونَ
.

The Shaykh : There is a point of consideration regarding this example mentioned by
If you are interpreters of dreams إِنْ كُنتُمْ لِلرُّؤْيَا تَعْبُرُونَ
. The point of consideration is that the lām in his saying:
interpreters of dreams لِلرُّؤْيَا تَعْبُرُونَ
appears to be for transitivity, and that the lām entered the object because of its weakness due to its preceding position
If you are interpreters of dreams إِنْ كُنتُمْ لِلرُّؤْيَا تَعْبُرُونَ
, since the author holds that the intended meaning is: "If you are interpreters of dreams, if you are interpreters of dreams." So according to his view, we say: the lām is extra, but it appears that here it is for transitivity because of the delay of the governing verb, yes?
The student: Do you mean it is the governing verb?

The Shaykh : No, no, it is a present tense verb as it is, but if the governing verb is delayed, it must be weakened, even if it is a noun of the active participle. Now, let us take this example and illustrate with it based on the author's opinion that the lām here is extra, because the verb can exert its power over its object by itself or not? Say yes or no?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : The verb can exert its power over its object by itself. It is said, for example: "If you are interpreters of dreams." Perhaps this is extra according to his opinion, and as it appears, is it here?
The student: It is extra.

The Shaykh : No, it is for transitivity. And illustrate the extra lām with what is common in their saying: "No father for you,"
"I am weary of the burdens of life, and he who lives *** Eighty years, no father for you, grows weary"
They said: The lām here is extra, and the evidence for its being extra is that "father" (ab) was inflected with an alif, and one of the conditions for its being inflected with an alif is that it be attached to a possessive. If we said that the lām is not extra, he would say: "No father for you," or "No father for you" without an alif. So when it was inflected with an alif, this indicated that the lām is extra, and its original form is: "No your father." Now, this is one aspect of his saying: "No father for you." And in another aspect, it is according to the language of those who obligatorily attach an alif to the five proper nouns absolutely, absolutely, so there is nothing in it.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

Similar fatwas