Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And if they are in the genitive in the past, they are like 'min' *** and in the present, their meaning is 'fi'; discern"
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The Shaykh :"And if they are in the genitive in the past, they are like 'min' *** and in the present, their meaning is 'fi'; discern"
(May Allah have mercy on him). Now, when he spoke about their function and that they come as two nouns, he spoke about their meaning in the state of the genitive. He said: If they are in the genitive in the past, they are like "min" (from), and if they are in the genitive in the present, they mean "fi" (in). Good. An example in the past: "I came to you *mudh* two days ago," the meaning is: "from two days ago." "I came to you *mundh* now," the meaning is: "in now," meaning in this time. So if someone asks you: What is the meaning of *mundh* and *mudh*? Say: The meaning differs. If they are in the past, they mean "min" (from), and if they are in the present, they mean "fi" (in), meaning "fi" (in). So it is now clear that their function is that they are prepositions of the genitive, and they are also temporal nouns. And if they are in the genitive, meaning if they are prepositions of the genitive, then if the genitive is in the past, they mean "min" (from), and if the genitive is in the present, they mean "ha"?
The student: "Fi" (in).
The Shaykh : "Fi" (in). Good. Do they take the genitive in the future? No, they do not take the genitive in the future, and therefore Ibn Malik did not speak about it. You cannot say "I will not come to you *mundh* two days," it is not correct, because they are either in the present or in the past.
"And if they are in the genitive in the past, they are like 'min' *** and in the present, their meaning is 'fi'; discern" And Allah knows best.
The student : Shaykh?
The Shaykh : Yes.
(May Allah have mercy on him). Now, when he spoke about their function and that they come as two nouns, he spoke about their meaning in the state of the genitive. He said: If they are in the genitive in the past, they are like "min" (from), and if they are in the genitive in the present, they mean "fi" (in). Good. An example in the past: "I came to you *mudh* two days ago," the meaning is: "from two days ago." "I came to you *mundh* now," the meaning is: "in now," meaning in this time. So if someone asks you: What is the meaning of *mundh* and *mudh*? Say: The meaning differs. If they are in the past, they mean "min" (from), and if they are in the present, they mean "fi" (in), meaning "fi" (in). So it is now clear that their function is that they are prepositions of the genitive, and they are also temporal nouns. And if they are in the genitive, meaning if they are prepositions of the genitive, then if the genitive is in the past, they mean "min" (from), and if the genitive is in the present, they mean "ha"?
The student: "Fi" (in).
The Shaykh : "Fi" (in). Good. Do they take the genitive in the future? No, they do not take the genitive in the future, and therefore Ibn Malik did not speak about it. You cannot say "I will not come to you *mundh* two days," it is not correct, because they are either in the present or in the past.
"And if they are in the genitive in the past, they are like 'min' *** and in the present, their meaning is 'fi'; discern" And Allah knows best.
The student : Shaykh?
The Shaykh : Yes.