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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Does not Ibn Malik's statement, "And the word *ma* in the genitive case...," contradict what was previously established regarding the fact that all pronouns are indeclinable, whereas here he is ruling that they are in the genitive case, a ruling that does not apply to anything other than declinable words, as is well known?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : Ibn Malik's statement:
"And every hidden pronoun must be indeclinable *** And the word *ma* in the genitive is like the word *ma* in the accusative".

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : The indeclinability...

The Shaykh : Ah.

The questioner : There is no contradiction in this.

The Shaykh : How?

The questioner : Pronouns are indeclinable.

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh :"And the word *ma* in the genitive".

The questioner :"*Ma* in the genitive".

The Shaykh : His statement: "The word *ma* in the genitive" means that which is in a position of the genitive case in terms of declension, and it is not a known word that is indeclinable. This is a good point, O Nasser. His intention is *ma* in the genitive, meaning that which is in a position of the genitive case.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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