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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "To a definite noun indicating two, without separation, is added *kullatā* and *kullā*."

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The Shaykh :"To a definite noun indicating two, without separation, is added *kullatā* and *kullā*"
"To a definite noun indicating two" is a prepositional phrase attached to "is added." And his saying: "is added *kullatā* and *kullā*" — "is added" is a past tense verb in the passive voice, and *kullatā* is the agent, and *kullā* is conjoined to it, meaning: To what are these two words added? "To a definite noun indicating two" means: To what indicates two, there is a second condition: it must be definite, and a third condition: without separation. So *kullā* and *kullatā* are among the nouns that are obligatorily attached to a noun, and they are not attached except to what indicates two, definite and without separation. Allah the Exalted said:
Each of the two gardens produced its fruit كِلْتَا الْجَنَّتَيْنِ آتَتْ أُكُلَهَا
[Al-Kahf 18:33]
Each of the two gardens produced its fruit كِلْتَا الْجَنَّتَيْنِ آتَتْ أُكُلَهَا
[Al-Kahf 18:33]
, and you say: "The two men came, both of them," and "The two women came, both of them." In the noble verse
Both of the two gardens كِلْتَا الْجَنَّتَيْنِ
, is it added to a noun indicating two or not? Are the two gardens definite or indefinite?
The student: Definite.

The Shaykh : Definite, separated or not separated?
The student: Not separated.

The Shaykh : Not separated
Both of the two gardens كلتا الجنتين
Well, then if I said: "Both of two men stood up," "Both of two men stood up," is that permissible?
The student: It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : Why? Because "two men" is indefinite, not definite. And if I said: "Both of Zayd and 'Amr stood up."
The student: It is not valid.

The Shaykh : Why is it not correct?
The student: Because it is separated.

The Shaykh : Because it is separated. And if I said: "Both of Zayd is handsome."
The student: It is not valid.

The Shaykh : Why is it not correct? Because it does not indicate two, so it must indicate two, be definite, and be without separation. The rule from this verse is: Among what must be attached is *kullā* and *kullatā*, and they are not attached except to a definite, non-separated dual. Are they attached to an explicit noun and a pronoun, or not? To an explicit noun, as Allah the Exalted said:
Each of the two gardens produced its fruit كِلْتَا الْجَنَّتَيْنِ آتَتْ أُكُلَهَا
[Al-Kahf 18:33]
, and to a pronoun: "The two men came, both of them." Yes, and know that the predicate of *kullā* and *kullatā* permits the dual and permits the singular. The poet said:
"Both of them, when the race between them grew fierce, *** Have fled, and both their noses are my concern"
"Both of them, when the race between them grew fierce, *** Have fled"
Is this a dual or not?
The student: A dual.

The Shaykh :"And both their noses are my concern" Is this singular or dual?
The student: Singular.

The Shaykh : Well, if he made it dual, he would say: "Both their noses are my concern" (dual form). "Both their noses are my concern" (dual form). The dual is permissible considering the meaning, and the singular is permissible considering the form, considering the form. He said:
"And do not attach to a definite singular *** *ayya* and *in*, even if you repeat it, attach it
Or make the parts indefinite and specify with the definite *** *ayya* connected, and the opposite for the adjective
And if it is a condition or a question, *** Then absolutely, complete the sentence with it"

This is *ayya*, and "what do you know of *ayya*," O Ghanim, pay attention to it.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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