A man wipes for renewal, not due to a state of ritual impurity: does he start from the wiping, or is it not considered?
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The questioner : If a man, O Shaykh... then wipes for renewal, meaning he counts it, even if his ablution did not break until 'Isha', but he wiped for renewal?
The Shaykh : What is your opinion on this? This man says he wiped for renewal, not due to a state of ritual impurity. Does he start from the wiping, or is it not considered? Well, it does not contradict [the ruling] if we look at the apparent meaning of the hadith, which is that he starts from the wiping. And if we look at the fact that this wiping had no effect, then if he took them off afterwards and put them back on, it would not harm. It has been reported as a consensus that the wiping is after the state of ritual impurity, because the state of ritual impurity must precede it, for the wiping before the state of ritual impurity had no effect in removing a state of ritual impurity, so that we could say it is effective. Yes.
The Shaykh : What is your opinion on this? This man says he wiped for renewal, not due to a state of ritual impurity. Does he start from the wiping, or is it not considered? Well, it does not contradict [the ruling] if we look at the apparent meaning of the hadith, which is that he starts from the wiping. And if we look at the fact that this wiping had no effect, then if he took them off afterwards and put them back on, it would not harm. It has been reported as a consensus that the wiping is after the state of ritual impurity, because the state of ritual impurity must precede it, for the wiping before the state of ritual impurity had no effect in removing a state of ritual impurity, so that we could say it is effective. Yes.