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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the author's statement: "Until it is removed, if he wore it after completing ritual purity."

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The Shaykh : He said "Until it is removed", meaning one wipes over the bandage until it is removed. Pronouncing the *ha* with a kasrah (as *hilla*) is a gross error that changes the meaning, because if one says "until *hilla*," it implies that it is currently forbidden, which corrupts the meaning. However, "until *hal*ha" means until its removal. When is it removed? It is removed when the wound heals. It is obligatory to remove it once the wound has healed. If someone were to say, "I prefer to leave it on even after the wound has healed," we would say that this is forbidden and not permissible, because the reason for which the wearing and wiping were permitted has ceased, and when the reason ceases, the ruling ceases. He said "Until *hal*ha, if he wore it after completing ritual purity". "If he wore it" refers to all four types mentioned: the leather socks, the turban, the head covering, and the bandage. If he wore them after completing ritual purity, he said "after completing" and did not say "after ritual purity," so that one might not take a dispensation based on the word "purity" and say "after purity," meaning after most of it. Rather, he said "after completing ritual purity." So if a man is in a state of major ritual impurity, washes his feet, wears the leather socks, and then completes the bath, what do you say? Is it permissible or not?

The questioner : It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : It is not permissible. Why? Because he did not complete the ritual purity. It is true that the feet became pure, because there is no specific order for washing in the bath for major ritual impurity, but the ritual purity was not completed. Now, another man performed ablution, washed his face and hands, wiped his head and hands, and washed his right foot, then put it into the leather sock, then washed his left foot and put it into the leather sock. Is this permissible?

The questioner : It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : Repeat. How do you repeat?

The questioner : We do not answer until we think.

The Shaykh : This man performed ablution, washed his right foot, then put it into the leather sock, then washed his left foot. Is this permissible or not?

The questioner : It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : All right, wait. If he wore it after completing ritual purity, when he put the leather sock on his right foot, he did so before completing the ritual purity. The purity was not complete. What remained for him? Washing his left foot remained. So he must wash his left foot before putting his right foot into the leather sock. Do you understand? The author says "after completing ritual purity." This is the well-known position in the school of thought, because the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said
For I put them on in a state of purity فإني أدخلتهما طاهرتين
. The phrase "two pure feet" describes the feet. Does the meaning imply that he put each one in while both were pure, so that putting them in was after completing ritual purity? Or does the meaning imply that he put each one in while it was pure? In that case, the scenario we mentioned would be permissible. It is possible that it is permissible, and therefore the scholars differed. As you see, the school of thought requires that ritual purity be completed before wearing the leather socks. The Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah (may Allah have mercy on him) chose that it is permissible to put the leather sock on the right foot after purifying it, then purify the left foot and put the sock on it. He said that he put them in while they were pure; he did not put the right one in until after purifying it, and he did not put the left one in until after purifying it, so it is true that he put them in while they were pure. However, according to the school of thought, if a man did this, what should he do? We say: take off the right one and put it back on, because if you put it on after taking it off, you put it on after completing ritual purity. The Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah (may Allah have mercy on him) says that this is a type of futility. What does it mean that I take it off and put it back on? This has no effect, as long as you say that it is not obligatory to purify the foot again, then the objective has been achieved. But there is a hadith narrated by the people of the Sunan that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) allowed a man who performed ablution and wiped over his leather socks to wipe for a day and a night. His statement "if he performed ablution and wore his leather socks" may support the well-known position in the school of thought, because one who did not wash his left foot cannot be said to have performed ablution. And as long as this is the more cautious approach, it is preferable to follow it. We do not dare to tell a man who washed his right foot, put it in the leather sock, then washed his left foot and put it in the leather sock, to repeat his prayer and ablution. But we order those who have not done so not to do so, as a precaution.

The questioner : It should not be dried.

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : That the limb should be dried before washing it for a period of time.

The Shaykh : How is it dried?

The questioner : Drying it. If he put the leather sock on a foot, he may dry it before...

The Shaykh : This does not harm. This is not a customary thing. Therefore, we previously stated that the limb should not be dried for a moderate period of time that would be a cause for it. But this is the one he dried. All right, the issue is the author's statement: "If he wore it after completing ritual purity." This indicates what we mentioned: if he washed his right foot, then put it on and inserted it into the leather sock, it is not valid.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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