Explanation of the author's statement: "… and it is not permissible before the time, except for Fajr after the middle of the night…"

The Shaykh : He said "and it is not permissible before the time". The pronoun "it" refers to the adhan before the time, based on evidence and reasoning. The evidence is the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) . He said, "When the prayer is present." The prayer is not present except upon the entry of the time. Also, it can be inferred from his saying "when it is present" that the intended meaning is the presence of the prayer and the performance of its action. For this reason, when Bilal wanted to call the adhan while he was with the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) on a journey in intense heat, the sun had set, and he stood up to call the adhan, the Prophet said, "Wait for it to cool." Then he waited, and then he stood up to call the adhan, and the Prophet said, "Wait for it to cool," until they saw the shadow of the dunes, or until the shadow of the dune equaled its height, meaning near the time of 'Asr. Then he ordered him to call the adhan. This also indicates that the adhan should be when one intends to perform the prayer. Based on this, if a group were on a journey or on an outing and wanted to pray 'Isha' and preferred to delay it to the best time, which is the end of the time, when do they call the adhan? When they intend to perform the prayer, not when the time of 'Isha' enters. Now, this evidence, "when the prayer is present," the reasoning is that the adhan is an announcement of what? Of the entry of the time of prayer. And the announcement of the entry of a thing does not occur except after its entry. Accordingly, if someone calls the adhan before the time while ignorant, we tell him: when the time enters, repeat the adhan. This sometimes happens if a person is deceived or his clock deceives him; he looks at the clock and thinks it is, for example, twelve noon, but it is eleven, so he calls the adhan. We say this adhan is not valid, even if he was ignorant. When the time comes, it is necessary that you call the adhan. Now, the author said "except for Fajr after the middle of the night". Except for Fajr; the author excluded Fajr and mentioned when it is valid, saying: after the middle of the night. So the adhan for it is valid, even if the adhan is not called at the time. Accordingly, if the mu'adhdhins called the adhan at twelve o'clock today, or before twelve o'clock, here, except… the important thing is they called the adhan at this time, and when Fajr appeared, they did not call the adhan. Is it valid or not? According to the author's statement, it is valid. According to the author's statement, it is valid. And the apparent meaning of the author's statement is that there is no difference between having another mu'adhdhin who calls the adhan at the time or not, because he generalized the evidence. The evidence is the saying of the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) . He said, "Indeed, Bilal calls the adhan at night." But this evidence is not valid for argumentation. The evidence is correct, but the argumentation is not correct. First, because the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) explicitly stated in the hadith that there is someone who calls the adhan when Fajr appears, and sufficiency is achieved by him. Who is he? Ibn Umm Maktum. And it is known that if there is someone who calls the adhan for the Fajr prayer, sufficiency is achieved by him. Second, it was clarified in the hadith, as narrated by the group, that Bilal calls the adhan to wake the sleeper and return the one who is standing. So his adhan is not for the Fajr prayer, but his adhan is in order to wake the sleeper to eat the pre-dawn meal, and to return the one who is standing in order to eat the pre-dawn meal as well, to leave the night prayer and eat the pre-dawn meal. This is the wisdom of Bilal's adhan, and the wisdom is not that he calls the adhan for the Fajr prayer. For this reason, "Prayer is better than sleep" is not said for it, because the time for prayer has not yet arrived. And the author's statement "it is valid after the middle of the night", this also has a discussion. The hadith of Bilal that they argued with, does it indicate that the adhan is after the middle of the night? No, rather it indicates that the adhan is near Fajr. Its aspect is that he said and he said . And this is evidence that there was not between Bilal's adhan and Fajr except a short period, the amount of time it takes for the fasting person to eat the pre-dawn meal. So where is the middle of the night in this hadith? So the author's statement has a point of consideration from two aspects. The first aspect is that the apparent meaning of his statement is that the adhan for the Fajr prayer is permissible before the appearance of Fajr, even if there is no mu'adhdhin after the time. And the hadith does not indicate this. Why?

The questioner : Because Ibn Umm Maktum

The Shaykh : Because Ibn Umm Maktum calls the adhan after Fajr. Second, the author mentioned that this is permissible from the middle of the night, and the hadith does not contain what indicates that. Rather, the hadith indicates that the adhan that Bilal (may Allah be pleased with him) calls is near Fajr. For this reason, people may sometimes misunderstand and abstain, until the Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him) said to them: "Do not abstain until Ibn Umm Maktum calls the adhan." And this indicates that Bilal's adhan was near the appearance of Fajr. The second opinion in this issue is that the adhan before Fajr is not valid unless there is someone who calls the adhan after Fajr. And these people have a share of the hadith we heard, the hadith of Bilal. Its aspect is that Ibn Umm Maktum calls the adhan after the appearance of Fajr. The third opinion is that it is not valid for the Fajr prayer, even if there is someone who calls the adhan after Fajr, and that the adhan that is called at the end of the night is not for Fajr, but it is to wake the sleepers in order for them to rise, in order for them to rise and prepare for the Fajr prayer, and to conclude the night prayer with Witr. And this third opinion is the most correct, and its evidence is what preceded: . And this is general, nothing is excluded from it, and it is not contradicted by the hadith , because we say that Bilal's adhan is not for the Fajr prayer. So we can look at the conditions of the adhan. The adhan has conditions that relate to the adhan itself, and to its time, and to the mu'adhdhin. They relate to it, to its time, and to the mu'adhdhin. Now, those that relate to it: it is required that it be arranged, and that it be continuous, and that it be after the time, and that it not contain a mispronunciation that changes the meaning. Yes, whether this mispronunciation relates to the science of grammar or the science of morphology. Now, the mu'adhdhin, yes, we remain with the condition that he be in the number that came in the Sunnah. So if something is missing, it is not valid. Meaning, if he says: Allahu Akbar, I bear witness that there is no god but Allah, I bear witness that Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah, Hay 'ala al-salah, Hay 'ala al-falah, Allahu Akbar, La ilaha illa Allah. Is it sufficient?

The questioner : Yes

The Shaykh : No. As for the mu'adhdhin who is present, we mentioned it

The questioner : One, just

The Shaykh : No, it is necessary that he be Muslim, sane, male, one, and just. Five conditions. Now, yes

The questioner : ...

The Shaykh : What contradicts. Now, so we do not say that it is permissible. Six conditions. Six conditions, what? Yes. As for the time, we mentioned, we mentioned in the conditions of the adhan that it be after the time, so it is not permissible before it absolutely, according to the stronger opinion, except for Fajr according to the author's statement.