Continuation of the explanation of the author's statement: "And if he bought it with livestock, the period does not count."

The Shaykh : And in Muharram, he bought goods with it; he bought a car, he bought land for trade. Does he build upon the lunar year of the livestock, and do we obligate him to pay zakah when Ramadan comes in the second year, or does the lunar year begin from Muharram? The lunar year begins from Muharram. Why? Because of the difference in their intention, and the difference in their threshold (nisab), and the difference in their nature. Therefore, one does not build upon the other because of this difference. Now, conversely, if he had goods that he owned in Ramadan, and then he bought livestock with them in Muharram, does he build upon the lunar year of the goods and do we say that when Ramadan comes, he should pay zakah on this livestock? No, for the reason we mentioned in the justification for the first issue. Now, if he had dirhams that he owned in Ramadan, and in Muharram he bought livestock with them, does he build upon the lunar year of the dirhams? No, we say it does not build. So when Muharram comes in the second year, zakah becomes obligatory upon you, and that is due to the difference, as the author said.