What is the rationale for mentioning the punishment for a man having intercourse with a man in the same manner as with a woman?
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The questioner : What is the rationale for the punishment of a man having intercourse with a woman in her rear being the same as the punishment for sodomy?
The Shaykh : Yes, he is asking what is the rationale for mentioning the punishment for a man having intercourse with a man in the same manner as with a woman? The rationale is apparent, because both acts are performed in the rear.
The questioner : No, Shaykh, I am asking why the woman is subjected to the punishment, meaning, if a man has intercourse with a woman in her rear, does he receive the hadd (fixed punishment) just as he does?
The Shaykh : Yes, meaning the hadd for sodomy, because the nature of women is generally permissible, whereas a man is not permissible under any circumstances. However, the nature of women is permissible, so it is lesser. Therefore, even people see that committing a lewd act with a man is greater than committing it with a woman. Yes?
The Shaykh : Yes, he is asking what is the rationale for mentioning the punishment for a man having intercourse with a man in the same manner as with a woman? The rationale is apparent, because both acts are performed in the rear.
The questioner : No, Shaykh, I am asking why the woman is subjected to the punishment, meaning, if a man has intercourse with a woman in her rear, does he receive the hadd (fixed punishment) just as he does?
The Shaykh : Yes, meaning the hadd for sodomy, because the nature of women is generally permissible, whereas a man is not permissible under any circumstances. However, the nature of women is permissible, so it is lesser. Therefore, even people see that committing a lewd act with a man is greater than committing it with a woman. Yes?