Text copied Link copied

Al-Fatawa – home

﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

Scholar
Search mode

"And whoever stimulates himself with his hand without need is to be given a discretionary punishment"

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The Shaykh :"And whoever stimulates himself with his hand without need is to be given a discretionary punishment" We might say that this phrase has a connection to the chapter on the hadd punishment for unlawful sexual intercourse, and it also has a connection here. As for its connection here, it is because the punishment in this case falls under the category of discretionary punishment. As for its connection to the chapter on unlawful sexual intercourse, it is because this is an act of transgression by the doer in something that is not lawful for him. However, the location is not what concerns us; what concerns us is the author's statement: "Whoever stimulates himself with his hand without need is to be given a discretionary punishment". The meaning of "stimulated himself" is that he attempted to release the semen until it came out by his hand, whether he is a man or a woman. And his statement: "without need" means without a need for it. Need is of two types: religious need and physical need. As for religious need, it is when a person fears for himself regarding unlawful sexual intercourse, such as being in a country where he can commit unlawful sexual intercourse and it is easy for him to do so. He says that if his desire becomes intense, he must either extinguish it by this act or go to one of the houses of prostitution and commit unlawful sexual intercourse. So we say to him here that this is a legal need, because the established principle in the Shari'ah is: "It is obligatory to repel the greater of two harms by the lesser". This is reason. If this person must... either this or that, then we say in that case that this act is permissible for you out of dire necessity. As for physical need, it is like when a person fears harm to his body if he does not release this excess that is in him. Some people may have strong desire, so if he does not release this excess that is in him, it causes a blockage in his body... They say that a man dislikes mixing with people and sitting with them and being afflicted with this disease. If he fears harm to himself, then it is permissible for him to do this act because this need is a physical need, so it is permissible for him to do it. If there is no need and he does it, then he is to be given a discretionary punishment, meaning he is to be disciplined in a way that deters him. How is he disciplined? It has been mentioned to us that if he is disciplined by flogging, it is not to be increased beyond ten lashes. However, the correct view is that discretionary punishment is not limited to flogging, but it takes several forms, including reprimand, boycotting, flogging, taking money, destroying property, and others. Because the purpose of discretionary punishment is correction and change. We benefit from the author's statement...

The questioner : And imprisonment?

The Shaykh : Yes, and imprisonment. We benefit from the author's words that stimulating oneself by hand without need is forbidden, even though he did not state it explicitly. However, the obligation of discretionary punishment for the doer indicates that it is a sin, because it has been established to us that discretionary punishment is obligatory for every sin. Therefore, it is forbidden. And if we say it is forbidden, it requires evidence, because the original ruling for things other than acts of worship is permissibility. So what is the evidence for the prohibition? The evidence for the prohibition is the saying of Allah the Exalted:
(5) And they who guard their private parts (6) Except from their wives or those their right hands possess, for indeed, they will not be blamed - (7) But whoever seeks beyond that والذين هم لفروجهم حافظون إلاّ على أزواجهم أو ما ملكت أيمانهم فإنهم غير ملومين فمن ابتغى وراء ذلك
[Al-Mu'minun 23:5-7]
And beyond that, the one referred to... whoever seeks means whoever seeks to reach pleasure and does not guard his private parts, so he seeks beyond that. Those are the transgressors. They are the transgressors, meaning with regard to this act, and not the one who seeks that from his wife or what his right hand possesses. The meaning of the transgressor is the one who exceeds the limit. This indicates the prohibition.
Another piece of evidence is the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him):
Young man, those of you who can support a wife should marry, for it keeps you from looking at strange women and preserves you from immorality; but those who cannot should devote themselves to fasting, for it is a means of suppressing sexual desire. يا معشر الشباب من استطاع منكم الباءة فليتزوج فإنه أغض للبصر وأحصن للفرج ومن لم يستطع فعليه بالصوم فإنه له وجاء
Mishkat al-Masabih 3080
The aspect of indication from that is the saying of the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him): "Whoever cannot afford it, let him fast." Because if this habit of stimulating oneself were permissible, the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) would have directed to it, because it is easier than fasting, especially for young people, and because it is easier, and because a person obtains some pleasure in it. It combines two factors that necessitate permissibility if it were lawful: the two factors are ease and pleasure. Fasting involves hardship and does not contain pleasure. If this were permissible, the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) would have chosen it and directed to it, because it would be in accordance with the spirit of the Islamic religion if it were permissible. Therefore, the hadith is evidence for the prohibition.
Can we use as evidence the saying of Allah the Exalted:
But let them who find not [the means for] marriage abstain [from sexual relations] until Allah enriches them from His bounty. وليستعفف الذين لا يجدون نكاحاً حتى يغنهم الله من فضله
[An-Nur 24:33]
Is it possible?

The questioner : Yes, it is possible.

The Shaykh : Why is it not evidence? The command "and let them be chaste" could be contested by someone who says the meaning is to be chaste from unlawful sexual intercourse, and in that case, there is no evidence in it; there is no indication. However, from the theoretical perspective, we have evidence from the Qur'an and the Sunnah. The third is from the theoretical perspective, that this destroys the body and affects it, even affecting the instinct in it very much. The young man is in need of this instinct that Allah (Mighty and Majestic) created in him for the future. If he marries and this substance in him is weak, he will suffer a great loss. Many publications have been found in magazines and other places, and books have been written on this showing the harms of this act, and it is apparent. Therefore, most of those who do it are found to have a yellowish face. You find lethargy in them because this exhausts the body. Therefore, the evidence for the prohibition is from the Book, the Sunnah, and correct reasoning. As for consensus, there is no consensus because some scholars have permitted it. However, the reference in case of disagreement is to the Book of Allah and the Sunnah of His Messenger (peace and blessings be upon him). Therefore, we say that stimulating oneself is forbidden except for a legal or physical need. Now, if someone says: Has it not been narrated from the Salaf that they used to order their sons when they traveled...? We say yes, but this is to be understood as being for a need, not absolutely. Because as long as we have evidence from the Book and the Sunnah and from correct reasoning, the Salaf cannot do anything forbidden. But it is to be understood as being in the permissible state. Now, if one seeks to extract the semen by means other than stimulating oneself by hand, is it permissible or not?

The questioner : It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : It is not permissible, because the operative cause is the same, whether it is by the hand or by any other means. But if he thinks and something is released in him?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Yes, if he intends it. For example, if a young man has desire, he starts to think, but he does not touch the organ. Then he owes nothing. But he should not think of a specific woman, because thinking of a specific woman is a cause of fitnah (trial, discord or temptation), because perhaps with his thinking of her, Satan will dictate to him to contact her or his soul will become attached to her. But if he thinks of this act in general, meaning he imagines that he is having intercourse with a woman, for example, and ejaculation occurs, then there is nothing wrong with it. Although we advise against exposing oneself to it, because the thing that is not natural generally causes more harm than benefit.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

Similar fatwas