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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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If a wife says to her husband, "You are forbidden to me," is this considered zihar?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : If a wife says to her husband, "You are forbidden to me," what is the ruling according to the author's statement? And what is the ruling?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : [It is] lawful except for his wife; he did not say "except for his husband," but "except for his wife." And on this basis, if she forbade her husband, right?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Then she owes the expiation for an oath. Now, if she says to her husband, "You are to me like the back of my son" or "like the back of my father," right?

The questioner : She owes the expiation.

The Shaykh : She owes the expiation for an oath according to the stronger position. No, it is not zihar, because zihar is in the hands of the man. The school of thought, glory be to Allah, says she owes the expiation for zihar, and it is not zihar; it is not zihar, and she owes the expiation for zihar, meaning her husband may approach her without contradiction, and she owes the expiation for zihar. But the correct view is that she owes the expiation for an oath. Now, ... but what is your opinion, Muhammad, if she says to her husband, "You are divorced with three divorces"?

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : Is she divorced?

The questioner : ... The reins are in the hands of the man.

The Shaykh : No, she is not divorced. Yes. Yes, Ibrahim?
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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