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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Why did Ibn Malik not begin with the *mu'rab* (declinable) as an explanation, but rather as a translation?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The questioner : And why did he not begin with the *mu'rab* (declinable)? Because he presented the *mu'rab* (declinable) first?

The Shaykh : And what does the *mu'rab* (declinable) say? What does it say?

The questioner : The *mu'rab* (declinable) of nouns.

The Shaykh : That which is free from the suspicion of being a particle; I do not know of any that is safe except...

The questioner : O Shaykh... the names of verbs.

The Shaykh : Yes.

The questioner : ... .

The Shaykh : ...that do not change.
The reader: In the name of Allah, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.
The author (may Allah have mercy on him) said: The *mu'rab* (declinable) and the *mabni* (indeclinable) among verbs
"And the imperative and past tense are indeclinable *** And the present tense is declinable if it is bare".
The student: And the *mu'rab* (declinable) of nouns

The Shaykh : And the *mu'rab* (declinable) of nouns.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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