Why do we not make the dual of "al-ladhani and al-lataani and their like" inflected?
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The Shaykh : But tell me something else: Why do we not make the dual of dhayn and tayn, and alladhayn and allatayn, inflected? Why do we not make them inflected? Because inflection applies to them completely; they change according to the different grammatical factors. Also, the dual form distances their resemblance from the particle, which is a cause of being indeclinable. This opinion has been stated, and it is not far from the truth.
The questioner : And the inflected?
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : That they are inflected?
The Shaykh : That they are inflected, because the inflected word is the one whose ending changes according to the different grammatical factors, and this word’s ending changes according to the different grammatical factors completely. You say: "Jaa'a al-ladhani" (The two who came) and "Ra'aytu al-ladhayn" (I saw the two who), just as you say: "Jaa'a Zaydun" (Zayd came) and "Ra'aytu Zaydan" (I saw Zayd). For this reason, some grammarians said that they are inflected, and said that their dual form distances their resemblance from the particle, which is the cause of being indeclinable.
The questioner : And the inflected?
The Shaykh : Yes?
The questioner : That they are inflected?
The Shaykh : That they are inflected, because the inflected word is the one whose ending changes according to the different grammatical factors, and this word’s ending changes according to the different grammatical factors completely. You say: "Jaa'a al-ladhani" (The two who came) and "Ra'aytu al-ladhayn" (I saw the two who), just as you say: "Jaa'a Zaydun" (Zayd came) and "Ra'aytu Zaydan" (I saw Zayd). For this reason, some grammarians said that they are inflected, and said that their dual form distances their resemblance from the particle, which is the cause of being indeclinable.