Is it permissible for a man to pronounce divorce during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with his wife?
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Question:
Is it permissible for a man to divorce his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her?
Answer:
No, it is not permissible, if she is not a woman who has stopped menstruating and she still gets her monthly period.
As for if she is a woman who has stopped menstruating—an old woman or a pregnant woman—there is nothing wrong with his divorcing her during a period of purity.
As for if she gets her period and he fears she might become pregnant, he should not divorce her until he knows that she has become pregnant or that she has menstruated and then become pure, and then he should divorce her before he has intercourse with her. This is how the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) instructed Ibn 'Umar.
Is it permissible for a man to divorce his wife during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her?
Answer:
No, it is not permissible, if she is not a woman who has stopped menstruating and she still gets her monthly period.
As for if she is a woman who has stopped menstruating—an old woman or a pregnant woman—there is nothing wrong with his divorcing her during a period of purity.
As for if she gets her period and he fears she might become pregnant, he should not divorce her until he knows that she has become pregnant or that she has menstruated and then become pure, and then he should divorce her before he has intercourse with her. This is how the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) instructed Ibn 'Umar.
Source
binbaz.org.sa
The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.