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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "And let it be given in the definite and the indefinite what *** followed it, as in 'pass by a people of generosity.'"

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The Shaykh : He said: "And let it be given":
The waw is a conjunction, the lam is the lam of command, and the command implies obligation — the grammatical obligation, not the legal obligation. If I said, "I passed by a noble man," would you be sinful or not?
The student: You would not be sinful.

The Shaykh : Legally, you would not be sinful, but the grammarians would correct you for this, saying, "Say: I passed by a noble man." We told you: it is obligatory that you give it, in terms of case ending, definiteness, and indefiniteness, what followed it. And his saying:
"And let it be given": Is it not the lam of command with a kasrah, like
Let a man of wealth لِينفق ذو سعة
[At-Talaq 65:7]
? Did Ibn Malik say he made it sukun for the sake of necessity?
The student: It was preceded by a conjunction.

The Shaykh : No.
The student: With the waw, it is not a conjunction.

The Shaykh : Yes, what you are saying is that it is a conjunction. If it is preceded by a conjunction, all conjunctions become sukun with it. So it was preceded by the waw. The lam of command, if preceded by the waw, then, or the fa, is made sukun, right?
Whoever should think that Allah will not support [Prophet Muhammad] in this world and the Hereafter - let him extend a rope to the ceiling, then cut off من كان يظن أن لن ينصره الله في الدنيا والآخرة فليمددْ بسببٍ إلى السماء ثم ليقطعْ
[Al-Hajj 22:15]
Yes?
The student: So let him look.

The Shaykh : Yes, let him look,
And let him fear Allah, his Lord وليتق الله ربَّه
[Al-Baqarah 2:282]
,
So let him write and let the one who has the obligation dictate. And let him fear Allah, his Lord فليملل الذي عليه الحق وليتق الله ربه
[Al-Baqarah 2:282]
, so he made it sukun. Good, he says:
"And let it be given":
"Given" is the passive subject. Where is its passive subject? Right? "And let it be given" means the description. "And let it be given" means "it is given," a present tense verb built for the passive. The passive subject of "is given" is hidden and refers back to the description. That is: "And let the description be given, in the definite and the indefinite, what followed it." It is given "what." We said: it is given a pronoun as the passive subject — like this, O Rashid!! — and "what" and its case ending?
The student: A direct object.

The Shaykh : It is the second object of "given," because the first object is the passive subject. So what is the second object? That is, it is given with these two things: in the definite and the indefinite, what for the one that followed it. What is it? What does "what" refer back to? It refers back to the described noun. It refers back to the described noun. "What" is for the one that followed it, the description. And on this basis, the subject of "followed" refers back to what? It refers back to the description. That is: "The description must follow the described noun in definiteness and indefiniteness". This is the rule. The description must follow the described noun in definiteness and indefiniteness. An example of this is: "Pass by a people of generosity": "Generous ones": Is that how you have it?
The student: "Kurma."

The Shaykh : "Kurma"?!
The student: Yes, indeed.

The Shaykh : We should say "Arba'" (generous ones), we, because you are, if Allah wills, people of grammar.
"Pass by a people of generosity".
The student: "Kirma'" is better!

The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: "Kirma'" is better!

The Shaykh : Like that?! Good, correct, good: "Kirma'." "Kurma": its end is "ma." Where is the hamza? It was deleted for the rhyme. It was deleted for the rhyme for the meter. Good, look at "people": is it indefinite or definite, right?
The student: It is an indefinite noun.

The Shaykh : Is "people" indefinite or definite?
The student: It is an indefinite noun.

The Shaykh : Consider it!
The student: It is an indefinite noun.

The Shaykh : Are you sure?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : Good, "Kirma'"?
The student: It is an indefinite noun.

The Shaykh : Indefinite as well?!
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : Correct, so it follows it in indefiniteness. We gave the description what the described noun had of indefiniteness, so we said: "Pass by a people of generosity." I have a problem with the word: "Pass by a people of generosity". We know that prepositions are signs of a noun. And here "pass" is a command verb, and the kaf is attached to the command verb. What is the answer? The answer, let us see Abdullah!
The student: It is a preposition.

The Shaykh : And what?
The student: It is a preposition.

The Shaykh : Yes, it is a preposition.
The student: ...
Another student : ...

The Shaykh : Yes, it is attached to the sentence, estimated as a singular or a noun. The estimation is like this example, or attached to a deleted word estimated as saying: "Pass by a people of generosity," correct? Good, if we want to convert this example to definite, we say: "Pass by the people of generosity," "Pass by the people of generosity," correct or not?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : "Pass by the people of generosity," good. If I said: "Pass by a people of the generous ones"?
The student: Incorrect.

The Shaykh : Incorrect, and it is!
The student: Because it contradicted it.

The Shaykh : It contradicted it. "People": the described noun is indefinite, and "the generous ones" is definite. Good, "Pass by the people of generosity"?
The student: It is not permissible.

The Shaykh : Right, it is not valid?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : I say it is valid.
The student: It is valid as a state (hal).

The Shaykh : It is valid as a state, yes, it is valid as a state, not as a description, like that?! But yes, it is not valid to say: "Pass by the people of the generous ones," this is correct, it is not valid. But I did not say: "of the generous ones," rather, now if I said: "Pass by the people of the generous ones," is it permissible?
The student: No.

The Shaykh : It is not permissible, but: "Pass by the people of generosity," as a state, this is permissible, there is no obstacle. Good, the important thing, O brothers, now we know that it is obligatory for the description to follow the described noun in what? In definiteness and indefiniteness. Good, and does it follow it in case ending?
The student: Yes.

The Shaykh : Where do we take it from the author's words? From the first verse:
"It follows in case ending the first nouns".
So it follows now. The description follows the described noun in three things: in case ending, definiteness, and indefiniteness. Yes, good.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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