Explanation of the words of Ibn Malik (may Allah have mercy on him): "So give it from the agreement of the first *** what the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first."
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The Shaykh : And for this reason, he said:
"So give it from the agreement of the first *** what the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first":
"Give it": This means give it, give it.
"From the agreement of the first": What is the first?
The student: The description.
The Shaykh : No, the one being followed is the first.
"What the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first":
This means what the description has from the agreement of the first, that is, what is given to the description from the agreement of the first. Let us look at the grammatical parsing of the verse because it is difficult: "Give it": This contains an imperative verb and a first object. Where is the first object?
The student: The pronoun.
The Shaykh : The pronoun in "give it" is the first object. And his saying: "What from the agreement": This "what" is the second object. That is, give it, for the sake of agreeing with the first, what the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first. It has been mentioned previously that the description follows the described in four out of ten aspects: in one aspect of grammatical case, in one aspect of definiteness or indefiniteness, in one aspect of singularity and its two branches, and in one aspect of gender. It follows it in four out of ten. This also follows in four out of ten. For example: if the one being followed is in the nominative case, does the apposition become in the nominative case?
The student: Similarly.
The Shaykh : If the one being followed is in the nominative case, the apposition becomes in the nominative case. If the one being followed is in the accusative case, the apposition becomes in the accusative case. If the one being followed is singular, the apposition becomes singular. If the one being followed is feminine, the apposition becomes feminine. And the reverse is the reverse.
Good. We understood from the author's words from this rule: that the rulings of the description are given by way of following. We understood from it that it is permissible for the apposition to be between two indefinite nouns, is that so? Between two indefinite nouns.
"So give it from the agreement of the first *** what the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first":
"Give it": This means give it, give it.
"From the agreement of the first": What is the first?
The student: The description.
The Shaykh : No, the one being followed is the first.
"What the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first":
This means what the description has from the agreement of the first, that is, what is given to the description from the agreement of the first. Let us look at the grammatical parsing of the verse because it is difficult: "Give it": This contains an imperative verb and a first object. Where is the first object?
The student: The pronoun.
The Shaykh : The pronoun in "give it" is the first object. And his saying: "What from the agreement": This "what" is the second object. That is, give it, for the sake of agreeing with the first, what the description and the apposition have from the agreement of the first. It has been mentioned previously that the description follows the described in four out of ten aspects: in one aspect of grammatical case, in one aspect of definiteness or indefiniteness, in one aspect of singularity and its two branches, and in one aspect of gender. It follows it in four out of ten. This also follows in four out of ten. For example: if the one being followed is in the nominative case, does the apposition become in the nominative case?
The student: Similarly.
The Shaykh : If the one being followed is in the nominative case, the apposition becomes in the nominative case. If the one being followed is in the accusative case, the apposition becomes in the accusative case. If the one being followed is singular, the apposition becomes singular. If the one being followed is feminine, the apposition becomes feminine. And the reverse is the reverse.
Good. We understood from the author's words from this rule: that the rulings of the description are given by way of following. We understood from it that it is permissible for the apposition to be between two indefinite nouns, is that so? Between two indefinite nouns.