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﴿ فَاسْأَلُوا أَهْلَ الذِّكْرِ إِن كُنتُمْ لَا تَعْلَمُونَ ﴾

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Why was "man" used in explaining the warning in the commentator's statement, "meaning, beware of doing such-and-such"?

Machine translationRead the Arabic original
The student: Why was "man" used?

The Shaykh : Huh?
The student: In the explanation, it says, "beware of doing such-and-such."

The Shaykh : Yes, because "an" here is based on the assumption of "man." If he had said, "I warn you of doing such-and-such," there would be no one being warned against. One is only warned against something on the assumption of "man." Yes.
Source alathar.net

The Arabic text is copied verbatim from the original source, without any edits.

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